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04-10-2005, 10:01 PM | #1 |
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Extrabilblical Evidence for Herod's Slaughter of the Innocents?
I have always heard that there is no extrabiblical support for Herod's slaughtering of the innocents after Jesus' birth. When I mentioned that at another site, an apologist claimed that a 5th Century Roman historian named Macrobius (not a Christian, I assume) does indeed make mention of it, and that, in fact, he claims that one of Herod's own sons fell victim in the event.
Now, I realize that the 5th Century is a long time after the alleged event, but would a non-Christian historian have any reason to confirm this story if he didn't have some kind of documentation for it? Does anyone have any knowledge of Macrobius and what it was, if anything, he actually said on the topic? Thanks. |
04-10-2005, 10:18 PM | #2 | |
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From the Catholic Encyclopedia
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Macrobius |
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04-10-2005, 10:55 PM | #3 |
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Toto, Thanks for your response, though I'm still confused about it all. So is even the Catholic Encyclopedia implying that Macrobius is off the mark here? Could it be that by the 5th Century the story of Herod's massacre of the inocents was so well known that even non-Christians would be making up quotes to put into Augustus' mouth as if the event had actually happened?
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04-10-2005, 11:27 PM | #4 | |||
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It is possible that Macrobius reported that Augustus made this comment based on hearing about Herod's massacre of the innocents and his own son (who was not under 2 years old). The gospels had been in circulation for a few centuries by then, and Macrobius might well know something about them. It seems equally possible that a later Christian copyist inserted the reference to the slaughter of the innocents, and the original only referred to Herod killing his own son. The pun in Augustus' remark only related to Herod's own son, not the other innocents. We don't know much about Macrobius. He might have been a Christian. He was last mentioned on the boards here where you can read the passage in Latin, quoted by JoeWallach: Quote:
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04-11-2005, 04:20 AM | #5 | |
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04-11-2005, 07:23 AM | #6 | |
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However being a non-Christian at that date would have been an obstacle to senior government office. Since Macrobius appears to have been prefect of Italy in 431, he was probably at least a nominal Christian. Andrew Criddle |
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