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Old 09-26-2007, 04:44 PM   #71
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Hex, thank you, that was very interesting.
 
Old 09-26-2007, 06:40 PM   #72
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Hahaha. He did it, he really did it!

He admitted he had no way to counter the claims of the C14 curves agreeing. He admitted not knowing why they appear to be old. He admitted having no explanations or reasons to infer they had faulty assumptions...

And he STILL says there were faulty assumptions! Despite admitting ignorance!

Dave, i have to say, it's so easy to be an atheist with you around!
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Old 09-26-2007, 07:43 PM   #73
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I did say that they hedged, so I don't feel bad. In a published work, you have to, and I hope I made that clear.

But on the other hand, over a beer when talking amongst themselves ...

Archaeologists are a whole lot more certain ...

And I threw in my hedges because I haven't access to all the info they had ...
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Old 09-26-2007, 10:30 PM   #74
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Originally Posted by Amaleq13 View Post
It seems to me, and I think Roger would agree, that there is a significant difference between "determined" and "speculated on the basis of certain circumstantial evidence".
Amaleq, I think the reason you, and Roger, and AFDave, get pushback when you talk about (or, in Dave's case, accuse scientists of) "speculation" is that the term denotes "form[ing] a theory or conjecture about a subject without firm evidence." (New Oxford American Dictionary)

If you say, "assert based on persuasive evidence," or "hypothesize based on the observations we have," etc., you'll probably get agreement from scientists. But when you say scientists "speculate" about something, you're implying, even if you don't realize it, that they're basically making shit up.

Dave frequently asserts that scientists "speculate" that atmospheric 14C levels have been relatively constant over the past 60,000 years. But they don't "speculate" that those levels have been constant (and they know for a fact that they have not been constant). There's no "speculation" involved about atmospheric radiocarbon levels.

"Speculation" isn't just "guesswork"; it's guesswork without any kind of factual foundation.
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Old 09-27-2007, 05:32 AM   #75
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Originally Posted by Amaleq13 View Post
It seems to me, and I think Roger would agree, that there is a significant difference between "determined" and "speculated on the basis of certain circumstantial evidence".
Amaleq, I think the reason you, and Roger, and AFDave, get pushback when you talk about (or, in Dave's case, accuse scientists of) "speculation" is that the term denotes "form[ing] a theory or conjecture about a subject without firm evidence." (New Oxford American Dictionary)

If you say, "assert based on persuasive evidence," or "hypothesize based on the observations we have," etc., you'll probably get agreement from scientists. But when you say scientists "speculate" about something, you're implying, even if you don't realize it, that they're basically making shit up.

Dave frequently asserts that scientists "speculate" that atmospheric 14C levels have been relatively constant over the past 60,000 years. But they don't "speculate" that those levels have been constant (and they know for a fact that they have not been constant). There's no "speculation" involved about atmospheric radiocarbon levels.

"Speculation" isn't just "guesswork"; it's guesswork without any kind of factual foundation.
ericmurphy, :notworthy:


You know, I -knew- something about that sort of language set me on edge and got me all defensive, and I never put it together. Thanks loads!
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Old 09-27-2007, 05:34 AM   #76
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Way back in the mists of time (well OK in the late 1970's early 1980's ) I studied archaeology as a subsidiary subject for my degree (I do not however consider myself an expert by the way, more someone with a bit of knowledge of the subject and its' methodolgy ) anyway the students and lecturers then used to joke about the fact that previous,often eminent, archaeologists were all too quick at times to call artefacts "religious" or "ritual" ,when what they really should have said is "We don't really know but it was obviously important enough to be made and kept so had some significance for them ".
So archaeologists are well aware of this .
Wonder what future archaeologists would make of the significance of all those the "cultic", "ritual" "religious" artifacts that clutter up our present age?
How much genuine "religious" or "cultic" significance would be ascribed to a cheap costume jewelry "accessory" crucifix that was actually worn by an individual that was a self-described atheist, or non-believer?
Or to one of those millions of ubiquitous "praying Jesus" wall-clock's that are almost always recieved as "gifts"? My mom had one of those on her wall for like 40 years, but other than the practical usage as clock to tell the time, none of us ever "venerated" it, or even willingly described ourselves as being "Christian".

I tend to believe that such "art" objects have been around a loooong time, beginning with the first of mankind's primitive scratchings upon cave walls,
It's just the archaeologists own "religious" and "cultic" predispositions that have caused them to "identify" virtually every ancient scratching or relic as having held some profound "religious" or "cultic" significance.

That is of course an interesting speculation
Not far from me there is a man who obsessively collects Elvis statues, memorabilia etc .
Is this just collecting "art " objects or is it in fact a form of "cult" ?
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Old 09-27-2007, 06:06 AM   #77
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I sometimes wonder if future archaeologists will write articles on the worship of the god 'Pepsi' in our age. Think of the parallels -- approaching the 'altar', sacred drinks, one in every office...
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Old 09-27-2007, 06:47 AM   #78
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In archaeology, a 'cultic' item is part of a larger scheme or suite of items/motifs that define the presence of a shared patterning over an area/group/groups of peoples.
Turning that into English -- jargon can hide a lot, even from those of us who write it! -- what this appears to be saying is that if we have the same pattern of arrangement of artefacts over an wide area, we suppose that this must be of religious significance?

This is not unreasonable, although far from certain, but is rather subjective when compared to an inscription on the bottom of a statue saying "Jupiter" and a text telling us that Jupiter is a deity. It is, after all, fairly clearly possible that such shared arrangements have no religious significance but are merely cultural. Indeed other explanations are also possible, unimagined by us.

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Places where the motifs are found show that there were shared concepts and rules (we'll get to rituals below, but they count in this too) between peoples which would help to show a shared identity and most likely, similar views on items/actions/occurances. In that way, this figurine is, most definately 'cultic'.
It is certainly evidence of some kind of shared identity, unless the parallels are trivial (think of pyramids in Mexico and pyramids in Egypt). The step from this fact to a hypothesis of religious inspiration is not warranted in isolation, it seems to me. It is justified because of analogy from other tribal setups for which we have written or oral evidence. Surely?

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Actually though, 'context' is one of the most important aspects of archaeology, if you really want to dig the importance of ritual and meaning from it. Anyone who has gone to a museum and looked at an arrowhead or a pot or a mummy in a museum can see that it's something old. That it's something that we, as modern people, don't make or in some cases even use anymore.

But what does the artifact -mean- for history? Here, context is king. Where was it found? What was arround it? Was the arrowhead found in the midst of a mass-butchering area, in a midden, or between the teeth of a juvinile burial's teeth? Now, I'm not debating that some information can come from an artifact itself - an extra-thin and well-made arrowhead (when compared to others of it's type) is likely to indicate special purpose, especially if it structurally is unable to do it's morphological function and instead serves an aesthetic or symbolic purpose. But still, -where- and -with what- you find it is where you actually get the information from.

Roger asked how Archaeology 'knew' things about something being 'cultic' or 'religious'. The simple answer? Context of the artifacts.
Unfortunately all of this -- with which I agree -- doesn't seem to me to actually address the point. Sooner or later this comes back to "how do we know that this is a religious context" which is the point at issue.

I'm snipping fairly brutally from here on, since the majority of what is said simply repeats this failure to get the point.

Quote:
Perhaps instead of focusing only on the figurine, I should have understood that you wouldn't look up the entire 4 page article, so here, let me give you the context:
...
Does -that- help to explain why this might be ... if not religious, then of ritual significance? At least, it should help with understanding the next bit ...
Some of us poor miserable serfs who pay the taxes to fund these institutions have no access to JSTOR, tho, so do allow for this.

But I'm very sorry to repeat this, but evidently I have not managed to make myself clear. Not sure how to say it again better!

Quote:
Or not? Underground chamber, wall niche, figurine ... All 2.5m below the surface, cut into chalk. Hmmm .... Well, by itself, it could be just plain unusual, but ...
Religious significance is always in all cultures attached to such arrangements? No doubt this knowledge arrives by divine revelation...?

What you actually mean, I suggest, is that you think it reasonable to suppose religious origin, working from parallels in other civilisations for which we have texts to tell us that these are religious arrangements. I agree. But by itself we would not, could not know.

Quote:
Do you need me to go through it in even more detail?
It would be better to stop repeating material which simply demonstrates the same *lack* of data on the point at issue, and consider just how you know the things to which you appeal. Sooner or later we come back to texts and inscriptions, I suggest. You haven't shown otherwise, because each item of context to which you appeal is likewise meaningless, to the same degree, unless we know how to interpret that context. Surely?

Quote:
Intentional destruction of a functional/expensive/meaningful item ...
Which is something that we can determine archaeologically...

Quote:
...is a public expression of intent and comitment to some thing.
This, on the other hand, is a hypothesis as to how it occurs, with which we may or may not agree (I don't necessarily disagree).

In the case of college drinking clubs it is an affirmation of power and status and intoxication, not religious belief, to give one simple example of the limits of the above.

Quote:
Now, how much of what you 'know' have you perceived directly? Do you -only- believe your own senses? Did the Apollo Moon Landings ...
At this point I'm afraid that the subject is changed to whether we believe what others tell us. This is not the point at issue. If this is an appeal to authority along the lines of "archaeologists tell us this is ritual you must believe it even though they cannot produce evidence for it" then I'm afraid intelligent people will smile. Your case cannot, must not, be of that kind.

Quote:
(Various insulting remarks)
I'm afraid that my inability to convey to you the point at issue has clearly led you to suppose me a fool. Oh well.

Quote:
You want 100% certainty about intent from archaeology?
No. What I want is something better than supposition. Your posts seem rather unclear as to the difference between data and deduction from it. The former is fact, the latter is not.

All the best,

Roger Pearse
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Old 09-27-2007, 08:18 AM   #79
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Originally Posted by ericmurphy View Post
Amaleq, I think the reason you, and Roger, and AFDave, get pushback when you talk about (or, in Dave's case, accuse scientists of) "speculation" is that the term denotes "form[ing] a theory or conjecture about a subject without firm evidence." (New Oxford American Dictionary)
It seems to me that an absence of "firm evidence" is precisely what is involved with regard to the items we've been discussing. They only have circumstantial evidence and, more importantly but no less unfirm, the fact that there does not appear to be any better explanation currently available.

Quote:
If you say, "assert based on persuasive evidence," or "hypothesize based on the observations we have," etc., you'll probably get agreement from scientists. But when you say scientists "speculate" about something, you're implying, even if you don't realize it, that they're basically making shit up.
I think the phrase I used ("informed speculation") is the equivalent of both your suggestions. I believe I even threw in a "highly informed" at one point. They are speculating from circumstantial evidence and their professional experience in the field. I think it is just as misleading to label their efforts as "simply speculation" as it is to label their conclusions as somehow established or required by the evidence.

Quote:
Dave frequently asserts that scientists "speculate" that atmospheric 14C levels have been relatively constant over the past 60,000 years. But they don't "speculate" that those levels have been constant (and they know for a fact that they have not been constant). There's no "speculation" involved about atmospheric radiocarbon levels.
Apples and oranges. Dave appears to be completely and quite possibly willfully clueless with regard to what is actually involved and only interested in preserving his beliefs at all costs.
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Old 09-27-2007, 08:26 AM   #80
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Amaleq, I think the reason you, and Roger, and AFDave, get pushback when you talk about (or, in Dave's case, accuse scientists of) "speculation" is that the term denotes "form[ing] a theory or conjecture about a subject without firm evidence." (New Oxford American Dictionary)
It seems to me that an absence of "firm evidence" is precisely what is involved with regard to the items we've been discussing. They only have circumstantial evidence and, more importantly but no less unfirm, the fact that there does not appear to be any better explanation currently available.
To me also. What I think is actually happening is that analogies are being pursued based on literary or other parallels. This is fine, but needs to be clearly understood, and the limits of it need to be understood.

All the best,

Roger Pearse
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