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Old 01-22-2004, 01:42 PM   #11
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Originally posted by Dr Rick
...maybe he wasn't born with an earthly father, either; vulnerability to snake bites is passed through the father, you know.
That would explain why the snake only bit him after he refused the snakes' suggestion to eat the candy my father told him he couldn't have.
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Old 01-22-2004, 01:47 PM   #12
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Default Re: Re: The Problem of Original Sin

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Originally posted by Magus55
Jesus isn't sinless by coincidence. Jesus is sinless because He wasn't born with an earthly father. Sin is passed through the father.
Magus, do you have any support from any bible verse for the bit I put in bold type above?

From what I gather, orthodox Christian doctrine holds that Jesus is considered sinless because there was no copulation between Joseph and Mary, and the act of copulation is where the sin originates. There's nothing in that doctrine at all about your claim, "sin is passed through the father".
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Old 01-22-2004, 02:01 PM   #13
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Maybe someone can explain to me where this concept of original sin and all of us being guilty because of Adam arises before the NT. I don't even see the word "sin" in the Adam and Eve story. I see God curses the snake and the woman and the man. He's going to make them suffer on earth.

Seems to me that the OT God pretty much punishes people in the here and now as opposed to all eternity.

When Moses comes down off Sinai with his chocolate tablets and sees the golden calf , he doesn't make reference to Adam. The flood isn't referenced to Adam. Etc.

I see there in Romans:5 where Paul seems to be making a logical construct: We all are sinners because of one man and by law of symmetry we are all saved by one man.

There are two problems with that, of course - the first is that I don't see where the Jews had this concept previously. The second is that there is no law of "symmetry".
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Old 01-22-2004, 02:01 PM   #14
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If what Magus said is true, then there would be no need for the virgin birth. Mary could have been married for years with multiple children before Jesus.
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Old 01-22-2004, 02:24 PM   #15
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Originally posted by Mageth
If what Magus said is true, then there would be no need for the virgin birth. Mary could have been married for years with multiple children before Jesus.
Its called the virgin birth because Mary didn't have sex to conceive Jesus.
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Old 01-22-2004, 02:33 PM   #16
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Originally posted by Magus55
Its called the virgin birth because Mary didn't have sex to conceive Jesus.
Neither did the mother of this little one:

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First test tube baby: JULY, 1978

Louise Brown was the first IVF birth
The birth of Louise was the culmination of well over a decade's work in laboratories in the UK.

Her mother, Lesley, had been told there was only a million in one chance of her conceiving naturally.

In the end, no hormone drugs were used to stimulate her ovaries - and the single egg she produced was enough to lead to a pregnancy, and the birth of Louise.
Did she have a virgin birth, too?
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Old 01-22-2004, 02:37 PM   #17
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Default Re: Re: Re: The Problem of Original Sin

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Originally posted by Gooch's dad
Magus, do you have any support from any bible verse for the bit I put in bold type above?

From what I gather, orthodox Christian doctrine holds that Jesus is considered sinless because there was no copulation between Joseph and Mary, and the act of copulation is where the sin originates. There's nothing in that doctrine at all about your claim, "sin is passed through the father".
Actually, I was just reading a couple sites on it, and they say Jesus wasn't genetically related to Mary either. I probably heard about the passing of sin through the father based on Adam being the origin of sin. But according to the sites I read, having any genetic link between Joseph or Mary would have made Jesus inherit sin.
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Old 01-22-2004, 03:39 PM   #18
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Originally posted by Magus55
Its called the virgin birth because Mary didn't have sex to conceive Jesus.
No, it's called the virgin birth because Mary had allegedly never had sex. At least try to get your theology right, as well as your understanding of words (e.g. "virgin").
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Old 01-22-2004, 03:44 PM   #19
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Default Re: Re: Re: Re: The Problem of Original Sin

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Originally posted by Magus55
Actually, I was just reading a couple sites on it, and they say Jesus wasn't genetically related to Mary either. I probably heard about the passing of sin through the father based on Adam being the origin of sin. But according to the sites I read, having any genetic link between Joseph or Mary would have made Jesus inherit sin.
Did that come from the "goofy site of the day" or what?

How in hell is "sin" supposed to be genetically inherited? How would you code for sin in DNA?

And that argument pretty much eliminates either of the genealogies in the Gospel, and the claim that Jesus was descended from David, doesn't it?
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Old 01-22-2004, 03:46 PM   #20
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Originally posted by Magus55
Its called the virgin birth because Mary didn't have sex to conceive Jesus.
Heck, I've got a niece who was conceived through in-vitro fertilization (no sex). But my sister-in-law was no virgin.
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