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12-19-2003, 01:00 PM | #1 |
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"heaven", in the Old Testament, is NEVER mentioned it as an "abode of God"
For obvious reasons, only the Old Testament is addressed. The
following is it's meaning. "heaven" shamayim (hebrew) shaw-mah'-yim dual of an unused singular shameh {shaw-meh'}; from an unused root meaning to be lofty; the sky (as aloft; the dual perhaps alluding to the visible arch in which the clouds move, as well as to the higher ether where the celestial bodies revolve):--air, X astrologer, heaven (-s).http://www.jcsm.org/StudyCenter/kjvstrongs/STRHEB80.htm |
12-19-2003, 01:38 PM | #2 |
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Beanpie, you might bolster your post with a little more discourse so we can tell what exactly your point is. By the way, one doesn't get meanings of words solely from lexicons, though they are a good starting place. Too much emphasis, of course, leads to the etymological fallacy. Context is often key.
Consider the following article: is it related to your post? **edited to add the following: In that article, heed the discussion about the Two-Register Cosmology. That was my point in posting it. The two-register cosmology lies behind Kline's reason for eschewing a literalist interpretation of the creation account. But the point I am making is that the two-register cosmology demands that God's "dwelling place is heaven's glory" (the upper register). Regards, CJD |
12-19-2003, 03:27 PM | #3 |
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Thank you
Thank you for, your advice. I shall certainly follow it.
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12-20-2003, 07:04 AM | #4 |
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CLARIFICATION
Beanpie, you might bolster your post with a little more discourse so we can tell what exactly your point is.originally posted by CJD
To me, it is odd that people use the word "heaven", as if it were a place and the Old Testament NEVER uses it, in this sense. nOTE: correct me if I am wrong but, I believe the Old Testament was written in "Hebrew". The New, in "Greek". |
12-21-2003, 06:39 PM | #5 |
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It is referring to the earths solid sky dome.
Read this article http://www.lhup.edu/~dsimanek/febible.htm |
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