Freethought & Rationalism Archive

Joan of Bark · 06-07-2009, 08:02 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by arnoldo

Quote:

Originally Posted by Joan of Bark

I looked into several Bibles, including the NIV and RSV, and only the King James Version(s) include the without a cause clause. Are you admitting that *gasp* Bibles contradict one another?

How is the translation of greek texts into different english versions a contradiction? :huh:

The KJV includes a qualifier that other Bibles do not; that represents a contradiction in English language texts. It's similar to Jesus' contradictory statements about divorce: in one passage, he forbids it under any circumstances; in the other, he creates a loophole for unchastity. Catholics and protestants have been arguing over it ever since.

Either way, you're stuck trying to justify the KJV over all other Bibles. Is the without cause statement in the best Greek texts or not?

andrewcriddle · 06-08-2009, 07:03 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Joan of Bark

Either way, you're stuck trying to justify the KJV over all other Bibles. Is the without cause statement in the best Greek texts or not?

It is absent from Vaticanus and Sinaiticus and P67 (now regarded as part of P64) almost all other manuscripts include it.

It is probably not original (omitting "without cause" is the shorter reading and the more difficult one) but it is not IMO absolutely certain.

Andrew Criddle

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