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05-20-2006, 06:33 AM | #1 |
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Is the Gettier Problem relevant to BC&H?
In another thread Vorkosigan provided a reference to tacit knowledge:
http://philosophy.uwaterloo.ca/MindD...knowledge.html which lead to the Gettier Problem here: http://philosophy.uwaterloo.ca/MindD...erproblem.html This Gettier problem is expressed in terms of examples in which the (formalised) three conditions of truth (truth, justification and belief) of knowledge have been met, but that there is no knowledge. In relation to BC&H I pose the following example: Practically everyone here has been taught to believe that there were christians on the planet with effect from the first century, and consequently the great hunt for the true history of the tribe of christians scrutinises the first three centuries. As an aside, do you consider the above statement correct or incorrect? But what if christians did not exist until the fourth century? We have no literature carbon dated before Nicaea. We have nothing archeological before Constantine. We have nothing christian on the planet before 312 CE. (Exceptions will be gratefully received) Is there is no knowledge of the history of christianity because it was a literary invention out of whole cloth under Constantine in the fourth century? Has the last 300 years of research into BC&H produced nothing definite because of a Gettier-like problem, in which the entire body of BC&H source material is a fourth century fiction, as claimed by the Emperor Julian (c.362 CE)? Pete Brown |
05-20-2006, 10:18 AM | #2 | |
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05-21-2006, 05:12 AM | #3 | ||
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taking notes as fast as he can ... Quote:
His writings, his biographies and his living memory. There may be no truth whatsoever in the NT, aside from that incorporated from extant writings and wisdoms by the author of the fiction in the fourth century. However there has to be a truth to history, and as far as I see it at the moment, the perhaps radical hypothesis that christianity is a 4th century fiction, deliberately anachronised by supreme imperial perversion of the patristic literature appears to be consistent with all the evidence available. The Gettier problem is that everyone believes that the truth exists in the fiction, and that there is no other reality behind the scenes. In such a sense, the world of scholarship to date has swallowed this literary calumny of Eusebius as a history in which some semblance of truth is presumed to exist. The truth does exist (IMO) but one must see through its calumny. That is why I think the Gettier problem is relevant to BC&H. Pete Brown www.mountainman.com.au |
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05-21-2006, 07:15 AM | #4 | |
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He is quite ready to accept that his attack on Apollonius may well apply to b/ rather than a/ Andrew Criddle |
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05-22-2006, 07:26 AM | #5 | |
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As to the Gettier problem (which I had not previously heard of), is it just me or is it expressed very badly in that Ferrari story? If someone says he owns a Ferrari, has the paperwork to prove it, and more than anything else, is seen to drive one, then, well, that person de facto owns a Ferrari. Isn't there a case where the presumption is based on slightly less compelling evidence? In Decoding DaVinci the other day on More4 (UK digital channel) the reporter was trying to get to the bottom of conspiracy theories, and found a Liverpool University researcher whose experiment seemed to prove that we are all conspiracy theorists. Unfortunately, the experiment seemed perfectly designed to come to that conclusion, since it apparently derived significance from the fact that the testee, upon being told that "a 28 year old investigative reporter is found dead in the bath" - and subsequently that they had been murdered, immediately asked questions about whether the death involved the investigative reporting, and was disappointed when the answer given was "no". This was a completely nonsensical test, because I submit that a person who has been outright murdered and is an investigative reporter is not really to be considered in the same light as Princess Diana, who died in a car accident, being thought of as having been murdered by the British Government. |
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05-23-2006, 05:46 PM | #6 | |
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those who believed Apollonius was a "god" (which Apollonius a la Philostratus emphatically denies) and those who believe Apollonius to be a wise man or a philosopher. Again, in this distinction is the classic Eusebian "Tell" of literary calumny! Any follower of the re-emergent philosophy of the Pythagoreans would have used the term "divine" in association with Apollonius in the first 3 centuries in precisely the same manner that Iamblicus was known as the "divine" to Emperor Julian (and others) --- because of his teachings. This Eusebius calumnifies this attribution of the appearance of (some form of) divinity, by having a ignorant belief that Apollonius "was a god" being raised for literary discussion. This calumny itself allows Eusebius to move on to the key reasons why the new and strange appearance of Constantine's new god called Jesus (in the fourth century only mind you) must be considered instead "as THE god". Eusebian literature is one calumny after another, until only the "tribe of christians" are left standing in the dirt dusty arena of his fiction. Has any scholar to date specifically treated the use of calumny in the literature of Eusebius? Or is everyone still running around trapped inside the Eusebian calumnic literature? Heroditus' description of calumny is directly relevant here. Eusebius would have read this word for word. He uses the device of culumny to establish christianity anachronistically four centuries before its first appearance under Constantine. They had a big problem with the followers and the philosophy and the anti-imperial antics of Apollonius, and wanted it removed seeing it could not be either geographically controlled or taxed by imperial rule. They deleted A and added J. It was all about control, with the usual dose of supreme imperial megalomania. Elsewhere you mentioned Hitler. He was in the mould of Constantine, not vice verse. Book burning is cited by most of the surviving historian accounts during the period following Nicaea. The precedent for burning opinions was set by Constantine himself at the opening of the Council of Nicaea. The council reports filed by Article 053 ... Nicaean Council, by Philostorgius (Arian, fragments via Photius) Article 054 ... Minutes of the Nicaean Council, by Rufinius of Aqueila Article 055 ... Minutes of the Nicaean Council, by Socrates Scholasticus Article 056 ... Minutes of the Nicaean Council, by Hermias Sozomen Article 057 ... Minutes of the Nicaean Council, by Theodoret of Cyrus are assembled here: http://www.mountainman.com.au/essenes/ Pete Brown www.mountainman.com.au |
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05-24-2006, 10:37 AM | #7 | |
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05-26-2006, 12:39 AM | #8 | ||||||
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but documents the controversy ... Quote:
by part of Eusebius' "Life of the Blessed Emperor Thug". It appears that there were some form of severe problems in Ecclesiastical Histories following on from Eusebius. The christian ecclesiastical history was continued after Eusebius by at least the following four authors, whom cannot tell us the context of Constantine burning written opinions, because their entire works are lost.... Hesychius of Jerusalem (Apollinorian?, lost?) Timeotheus of Betrytus (lost?) Sabinas of Heraclea (lost?) Philippes Sidetes (Philip of Side) (lost?) Then we have Rufinius of Aqueila Quote:
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Philostorgius (Arian, fragments via Photius) No reference. And then we have Hermias Sozomen: Quote:
the foregoing (and presumeably perhaps some of the lost works) and who makes no reference to the issue of burning opinions .. but insists: Quote:
the burning of these memorials by Constantine at the opening of the Council of Nicaea, and another set of "historians" making no specific reference to the act. It is clear that the burning happened at the opening of the council, after the triumphant entry of the supreme commander Constantine and after his major opening speach. At the point when he opens the meeting to general discussion we are informed there is great controversy and noisy voices. He calls for petitions, and then publically burns them. He was the supreme Roman emperor of the day. His barbarian battle troops were just outside and encircled the council, they did not stray far from Constantine (by order). Constantine had called the council "on account of certain words of Arius.. It is our thesis that Constantine implemented christianity "out of whole cloth" at Nicaea, and part of the process involved in the the arrival of harmony was the burning of written petitions (Rufinus and Socrates) or memorials (Sozomen). Constantine wanted to win an intellectual battle over the empire. He wanted to implement a new religion in the empire to replace the Hellenic traditions and beliefs embraced for a millennia by the Romans. He could not tax Hellenism, but he could tax the new and strange christianity, and at the same time calumnify Hellenism in the name of christianity, and thereby loot the treasures and the lands of the ancient Hellenic traditions. I do not think that the council of Nicaea was attended by bishops of christianity except those whom Constantine had hand-bred in Rome during the period from 312-324 CE, and whom Constantine brought with him to the council as INQUISITORS. The rest of the council IMO would have consisted of the patrician level land holders of the empire, and particularly the eastern empire which Constantine had only just acquired less than a year before the council. It was these summoned by Constantine, because until then christian bishops (outside of Rome) only existed as fiction in the literature of Eusebius. Pete Brown |
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