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Old 06-29-2004, 04:41 PM   #51
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Quote:
Originally Posted by McGargoyle
Judas' death and what happened to the money.
Matthew 27:5 vs. Acts 1:18
This is easily resolved. When it says Judas "hung" himself it means Judas was overcome with grief. He hung his head in shame. You are looking at the ancient document through modern eyes.
There were two different lots of money. There was the money Judas stole and the thirty pieces of silver.
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Old 06-29-2004, 04:46 PM   #52
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Originally Posted by Steven Carr
Jesus forgetting that he himself was God, and thinking that he had forsaken himself on the cross.
That is not what it says in Aramaic.
here is one translation straight from aramaic and here is another.
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Old 06-29-2004, 04:47 PM   #53
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Originally Posted by Roland
2nd toughest:

Luke says all eleven remaining apostles were present when the risen Jesus first appeared to them.

John says Thomas was absent.
Judas was present. his death is not reported in Matthew. Why should we assume that it refers to his death in Matthew? It merely means he was overcome with grief.
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Old 06-29-2004, 04:49 PM   #54
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Originally Posted by Magus55
No contradiction - both events happened. Matthew specifically tells us that Judas died by hanging.
Matthew does no such thing. He most certainly does not mention death. You are assuming that hanging means death , as it would to us.
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Old 06-29-2004, 04:51 PM   #55
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Originally Posted by doubtingthomas
. Another good choice is Jesus' failed second coming prophecy, but that one involves a bit more detail.
Jesus of course did return. He "came on clouds of glory". Check out what "coming on clouds of glory" means by referring to the OT prophets.
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Old 06-29-2004, 04:53 PM   #56
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Just for the record I think there are contradictions in the texts we have but I just don';t think any of those i have responded to are real ones.
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Old 06-29-2004, 04:56 PM   #57
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Originally Posted by judge
Jesus of course did return. He "came on clouds of glory". Check out what "coming on clouds of glory" means by referring to the OT prophets.
10But the day of the Lord will come like a thief. The heavens will disappear with a roar; the elements will be destroyed by fire, and the earth and everything in it will be laid bare. 11Since everything will be destroyed in this way, what kind of people ought you to be? You ought to live holy and godly lives 12as you look forward to the day of God and speed its coming.That day will bring about the destruction of the heavens by fire, and the elements will melt in the heat.
2 Peter 3:10-13


This was supposed to coincide with the coming of christ, yet one can hardly say that the earth has been laid bare.
 
Old 06-29-2004, 05:04 PM   #58
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Quote:
Originally Posted by judge
This is easily resolved. When it says Judas "hung" himself it means Judas was overcome with grief. He hung his head in shame. You are looking at the ancient document through modern eyes.
There were two different lots of money. There was the money Judas stole and the thirty pieces of silver.
Heck, why not go all the way and just say there were actually two different Judases.

BTW, there's a bit of a problem with the "hanging his head in shame" bit. That's simply not what the original text means:

http://www.blueletterbible.org/tmp_d...3108-6456.html

apagchomai {ap-ang'-khom-ahee}

1) to throttle, strangle, in order to put out of the way or kill
2) to hang one's self, to end one's life by hanging

It's you that's looking at the text through modern eyes, if you try to claim that the text means he hung his head in shame.

And where exactly is the Biblical support that Judas stole the money used to purchase the field?

Mat 27:3 Then Judas, which had betrayed him, when he saw that he was condemned, repented himself, and brought again the thirty pieces of silver to the chief priests and elders, (therafter throwing the money into the Temple)

In Acts, it speaks of Judas purchasing the field with the "reward of iniquity" almost immediately after stating "Judas, which was guide to them that took Jesus". It would seem on plain reading the money was the reward for the iniquity that was just mentioned. Reading that as previously stolen money is quite a stretch. And looking at the text through rather modern eyes, I might add.

The two accounts of Judas' end are simply impossible to harmonize without some addition to the text that's simply not there and rather twisted interpretation of what's there.
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Old 06-29-2004, 05:06 PM   #59
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Originally Posted by judge
Judas was present. his death is not reported in Matthew. Why should we assume that it refers to his death in Matthew? It merely means he was overcome with grief.
I'd say it's safe to assume that Judas' hanging was fatal.
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Old 06-29-2004, 05:07 PM   #60
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Originally Posted by judge
Matthew does no such thing. He most certainly does not mention death. You are assuming that hanging means death , as it would to us.
And as it did to the writer of Matthew.
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