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Old 08-27-2007, 02:14 PM   #11
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I suppose what I'm asking for is an atheist's opinion on this-you see that this word could mean that, so what is your opinion-it might very well be and it's a coincidence, or, it is not and it was probably made up by Christians, or, something else?
I'm not sure what it is you are asking. IOW, when you say "this word could mean that" what does "that" represent?
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Old 08-27-2007, 02:40 PM   #12
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I mean, if branch has the same root word as Nazareth, that is what I'm referring to.
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Old 08-27-2007, 09:48 PM   #13
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Hi again all. I was again curious about some of the tiny arguments of innerantists that seem to make sense and what they are all about, this one being their claim that in that old phrase somewhere in the OT about the messiah being a branch of Jesse there could be a prophecy Jesus will be a Nazarene, something about branch having the same root word as Nazarene or something like that. I have heard this is in scholastic doubt by some authorities for one, so I guess I was asking if anyone else had more info. Would Christian historians potentially invent this to lend credence to their theories? I suppose it is possible, again I wondered if anyone knew anything more about this.
Jesse was the father of David who became King of Israel after Israel's first king, Saul, to whom he was not related. Jesse came from Bethlehem, and thus Bethlehem was closely linked to the idea of the messiah of apocalyptic Judaism.

Thus many apocalyptic Jews believed that the Messiah had to come from the House of David (Jesse) because of comments of the prophets Jeremiah and Ezekiel, and would have a connection with Bethlehem.

Nazarites are a seperate concept explained in Judges.

Late apocalyptic literature (Book of Enoch et al) built on the ideas of the prophets. Thus many apocalyptic messianic Jews rejected the claims of Christianity becase Jesus was not born in Bethlehem and not of the house of David.

Luke and Matthew tried to remedy these deficiencies with their "infant narratives", geneologies and contrived claims that Christ (a known Galilean), had the required connections to the House of David and Bethelem to be considered a bona fide messiah. Luke and Matthew though, tell two utterly contradictory tales. There was no apocalyptic requirment that the Messiah be a nazarite.

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Old 08-27-2007, 09:56 PM   #14
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I mean, if branch has the same root word as Nazareth, that is what I'm referring to.
No.

The way to figure stuff like this out is to do a google search for terms(KJV, narazite strong's number) for an online KJV bible with links to Strong's which is a list of cross referenced terms that will explain the Hebrew or Greek roots of such words.

Strong's is not necessarily 100% reliable but generally is close enough.

Or google etymology, nazarite.

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Old 08-29-2007, 07:55 PM   #15
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Well thanks for the replies, although evidently no one was able to give me a simple straight answer on my big question, so I'm kind of disappointed. I guess I am to presume that the argument is that that word is not associated, and the suggestion nester and branch and Nazarite are all connected then must have have been invented by those seeking to put it there. And I guess that is that, unless anyone has something further to add.
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Old 08-29-2007, 08:59 PM   #16
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Dear dears, "Nazarite" as a form is simply tendentious shoddiness. The form is ultimately derived from Heb. NZR (to dedicate, consecrate), which yields NZYR, ie "Nazirite" (one consecrated).

LXX Jdg 13:5 says that Samson would be a Nazarite to god from the womb. The Alexandrian LXX has nazeiraios while Mt 2:23 has nazwraios, the two forms being rather similar and scribal confusion could have caused the Matthean form from Jdg 13:5.

Nazirite has nothing to do with "branch" (Heb NCR) and almost certainly neither does Nazareth.


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