andy5

Hi again all. I was again curious about some of the tiny arguments of innerantists that seem to make sense and what they are all about, this one being their claim that in that old phrase somewhere in the OT about the messiah being a branch of Jesse there could be a prophecy Jesus will be a Nazarene, something about branch having the same root word as Nazarene or something like that. I have heard this is in scholastic doubt by some authorities for one, so I guess I was asking if anyone else had more info. Would Christian historians potentially invent this to lend credence to their theories? I suppose it is possible, again I wondered if anyone knew anything more about this.

Amaleq13

If you browse through the threads obtained by searching for "Nazareth" in the title, I believe you will find information relevant to your question:

http://www.iidb.org/vbb/search.php?searchid=1821135

IIRC, netser is just one of several possible origins for whatever it is that Jesus was called.


PS For future questions, it would be nice if you supplied the specific verse relevant to your question.

Timetospend

The appropriate verses are:
Isa 11:1
A shoot shall come out from the stump of Jesse,
NRSV
Matt 2:23
23 There he made his home in a town called Nazareth, so that what had been spoken through the prophets might be fulfilled, "He will be called a Nazorean."
NRSV

I could not get the reference supplied by the moderator to work.

However, this connection in Matt 2:23 to prophets is only one of the possible explanations put forward. Others that have been suggested are:
-Some prophet not in the OT gave the prophecy.
-Given that prophets is plural, some believe that it is application of a summary of several prophets.
-Some suggest that it is a reference to a Nazirith.

Thanks,

Amaleq13

I don't know why it stopped working (I ran a new search and have since replaced the url) but anyone can run the same search for "Nazareth" in the title of a thread in BC&H to obtain the results.

Toto

Note - Searches are not saved very long.

JoeWallack

JW:
Since the context in "Matthew" is the Infancy Narrative and especially the supposed birth of Jesus I suspect that "Matthew" had Judges 13:7 in mind:

http://www.errancywiki.com/index.php/Judges_13

"but he said unto me, Behold, thou shalt conceive, and bear a son; and now drink no wine nor strong drink, and eat not any unclean thing; for the child shall be a Nazirite unto God from the womb to the day of his death."



Joseph

http://www.errancywiki.com/index.php/Main_Page

Chili

To be a Nazarene means to be born of a virgin because Nazareth is the city of God where all are virgins . . . just like they are in Rome which is our city of God. Remember how virgin Virgilia "did her work in good faith while in Rome" and was send to Corioli just outside of Rome to do Coriolanus and returned to Rome when she was done.

Nazareth is the flesh of David that also remained burried in the stump of Jesse now bringing forth a new shoot through Mary only because Mary was held captive there. It is just that simple but nice to know that perpetual virgins exist, to say that thruth will stand on its own. Consider here now that in John there was no virgin but Nathanael just fell out of a fig tree as a true Israelite without the infancy detour.

Lugubert

Yet another unadulterated :Cheeky: proof that the Qur'an is correct!

For example,

Chili

Sorry about that, but it has nothing to do with females except that we take on the purity of woman (our mother becomes our bride).

andy5

I suppose what I'm asking for is an atheist's opinion on this-you see that this word could mean that, so what is your opinion-it might very well be and it's a coincidence, or, it is not and it was probably made up by Christians, or, something else?