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Old 11-29-2003, 12:57 PM   #1
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Default J P Holding, Inerrance & Literary Theory

J P Holding, Inerrance & Literary Theory


The famous Mr Holding of Tektonics gives this twist on the concept of Biblical inerrance:

Quote:

"I believe that the original manuscripts of the Bible were produced inerrant, but it is my discernment that many, many believers today have a view of inerrancy that could not possibly have been that of that of the writers of the Bible. They fail to account for differences in the way ancient persons thought, acted, or perceived the world... The question that must be asked is, "Would this be regarded as 'inerrant' by the standards of those who originally wrote the text?" The answer in every case I have found so far is NO..."

Inerrancy and Human Ignorance, James Patrick Holding, Tektonics
In other words, Mr Holding claims to be able to understand the mind of the authors of the Bible texts.

Wasn't this idea demolished in Literary Theory in the 50s?

Does anyone here know anything of Literary Theory, or where I might post this query to get a good range of opinion?

Many thanks

PTET
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Old 11-29-2003, 01:59 PM   #2
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HOLDING
They fail to account for differences in the way ancient persons thought, acted, or perceived the world... The question that must be asked is, "Would this be regarded as 'inerrant' by the standards of those who originally wrote the text?"

CARR
So if the original writer of an ancient text thought it was not an error to put on a map 'Here be monsters', then we should not think of it as an error either?
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Old 11-29-2003, 02:54 PM   #3
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So if the original writer of an ancient text thought it was not an error to put on a map 'Here be monsters', then we should not think of it as an error either?


In that case I think he'd argue that the reference to monsters can only have been "Apocalyptic Imagery". See my discussion of his answer to me on Eschatology.

What fascinates me, is where he draws the line. When Jesus says:

"And he said unto them, Verily I say unto you, That there be some of them that stand here, which shall not taste of death, till they have seen the kingdom of God come with power." [Mark 9:1]

..Holding argues that this is not meant literally. Why, therefore, should we not conclude that all this stuff about eternal life is also not meant literally?

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