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Old 03-01-2005, 09:56 PM   #71
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Originally Posted by Jim Larmore
Your absolutely correct in this post but what you are ignoring is the fact that Daniel was not a Babylonian or a Greek. He was a Hebrew who was keeping with the tradional 360 day year kept back then.
And you are ignoring the fact that this is something that has been made up.

The Jews used the intercalary month method.
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Old 03-02-2005, 12:02 AM   #72
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Jim Larmore
Your absolutely correct in this post but what you are ignoring is the fact that Daniel was not a Babylonian or a Greek. He was a Hebrew who was keeping with the tradional 360 day year kept back then.
You don't know this. You are merely being creative.

If you knew anything about the Hebrew calendar, they inherited the 360 day calendar from the Persian domination. By the time 1 Enoch's Astronomical Book was written, the Hebrews knew that a 360-day calendar needed correction for cultic purposes and the famous 364-day calendar was put into practice at the end of the 3rd c. BCE. The second half of Daniel was written in 164 BCE, during the era of the 364-day calendar, whose life continued till 63 BCE when most of the priests who used it were killed in the Temple, then the Pharisees, who used the secular Greek/Syrian calendar of 354 days, gained cultural hegemony and enforced their practices. Daniel's calendar was 364-days. The main calendar of the Dead Sea Scrolls was 364 days. It follows after the popular 1 Enoch.

If you look at the flood story, you'll find traces of all three calendars: 5 months as 150 days means 30-day months, ie a 360-day year. When the whole flood cycle finshed a year and ten days after it started, the scribe who wrote it that way was correcting from a 364-day calendar to a 354-day one, hence the year and ten days. The scribe was aware of the flood tradition found in Jubilees, which clearly used a 364-day year and made the flood cycle a nice round year. Jubilees not strangely was written in the 2nd c. BCE, when our evidence points to a 364-day calendar being in use.

Just a sidelight to the 364-day calendar used by the Temple, try your hardest, using that calendar to find one prophecy in Ezekiel which fell on a sabbath. Try. You'll find not one. When Ezekiel was written, it used a 364-day calendar. So, when you talk about the Hebrews using a 360-day calendar, you need to justify when it was used and by whom. When Daniel gives good evidence to having been written in 164 BCE, what makes you think the book was using a 360-day calendar??


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Old 03-02-2005, 12:13 AM   #73
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Default Calendars

The 360-day calendar was a rough solar calendar with twelve months of 30 days which would be fiddled to match the observable yearly cycle which helped regulate agriculture.

The 364-day cycle was an attempt to maintain a theoretically perfect calendar which more closely matched the solar year. One can imagine a week being added every seven years to help it keep up, then further corrections.

The 354-day calendar was a lunar calendar in which they observed the arrival of the new moon for the start of a new month, then added a lunar cycle every three years to keep it close to the solar cycle.

Calendars can be theoretical or cultic and not reflect the real yearly cycle. The Egyptians at times had three or perhaps four different calendrical cycles in operation at the one time, each with a different purpose: civil, agricultural and cultic. During the second c. BCE it is probable that the Jews were using at least two, the 364-day cultic calendar and the 354-day civil calendar.


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Old 03-02-2005, 12:20 AM   #74
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Originally Posted by spin
2nd rate history. Arguments from silence have their place, based on what one should expect, not simply on what you can't find.
You have a point here, but I noticed two different behaviours.
If it's a controversial, insufficiently backedup, topic (like Trojan war), such arguments are not considered. Silence may be likely due to the lack of documents.
If it's upon some very well documented topic (greek or roman world), such arguments are considered. As the lack of documents, even significant, can be extrapolated to a degree. We have the words of some ancient erudites, so we know what is reasonable to ask from them to know and know not. And no ancient historian proves he can track other countries' history but those they strongly interacted with.
Indeed, it's a matter of what one expects, but nor me, nor other claim absolute truths here, just formulate hypothesis.

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They didn't lose their Nebuchadnezzar traditions. Why should they necessarily lose others? They didn't even lose a version of the Nabonidus tradition.
I don't know why. Why Herodotus mentions Nabonidus (Labynetus) and not Belshazzar? Do you think a part of Herodotus' text was destroyed? Maybe it was his own selection, or maybe he didn't hear about him. After all, the information came scarce, especially if you wouldn't travel to find it yourself. Probably Herodotus took this informations from an intermediary source (possibly persian). That may apply for a lot of historical informations that passed from Middle East to Greece.

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So you don't really mind the notion of Belshazzar surviving in Hebrew tradition, be it legendary or not.
Hebrew, not greek. Greeks seem to miss it and they are also geographically further away.

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Don't be silly with the meaningless expression, "full royal powers". If he were king he had full royal powers. He wasn't so he didn't.
Maybe my formulation seems a bit bloated, considering he didn't replace his father role in yearly ceremonials, but he was the full administrator of Babylonia.

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You have some wafty idea that Nabonidus had lost it and handed over control to his son, so that he could pursue his wayward interests which led later hagiographers to develop the notion of Nabonidus's madness, which the writer of Daniel transferred to Nebuchadnezzar. Instead, Nabonidus was working for his country's good to find alternative trade routes for those lost to the north.
I don't understand where do you disagree with me because I mentioned that Nabonidus lost his grasp due to his long absence, not because his left. This is a becoming process not an abrupt status change. Nabonidus chronicle mentions repeatedly: nth year - king in Theima, prince in Akkad, yearly ceremonials were not held. I expect this had a large impact not only on people, but also on clergy and noblemen.

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You've already allowed tradition to maintain it.
Tradition means stories, not pure records. "the prophet from the babylonian court" could have been such a story (bunch of stories) which was (were) "dressed" with political conotations during Maccabeans.
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Old 03-02-2005, 12:41 AM   #75
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For what it's worth, both Nabonidus and Nebuchadnezzar, though I'm not sure about information regarding Belshazzar in the scrolls. Maybe, spin, you could enlighten us there?
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Old 03-02-2005, 12:41 AM   #76
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Originally Posted by Eldarion Lathria
The last Western Roman Emperor, [...] I have included ONLY peoples who occupied territories of the former Western Roman Empire.
The thing is that Western Roman Empire didn't start to dismember in 476, because it was already. Some populations like huns, were already dead in 476 (replaced by gepids in Panonnia). The avars didn't show up in 5th century, only in the end of the 6th century almost at the same time with slavs. Also I'm not sure that before 476 angles, jutes and saxons really occupied roman territory, or just were roaming around preparing for their jump in the abandoned Britannia. So it's difficult to draw a map, but when drawn must be limited by time. Europe in 5th century is significantly different than the one from 6th. And if we'd relate each population to the fall of Western Roman Empire, things will get even more complicated.




Quote:
Originally Posted by Jim Larmore
Maybe you should write or call the people who publish things like the encyclopedia Britannica or History of Western Europe and let them know how clumsy they are
Come on, don't give me these authority calls! Encyclopaedia Britannica is by no means the authority in matter of history, rather in matter of anything, since it's intended to be a compilation for general knowledge.
Regarding barbaric invasions in Europe I recommend you Lucien Musset and Pierre Riche, regarding the history of papacy I recommend you Harald Zimmermann's book which follows closely Liber Pontificalis.

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He was the only one who was crowned prince of heaven and of earth and of the lower regions and started the papal legacy we know of today. This Bishop of Rome came to power in 538 A.D. and is the one that tapestries and wall art is painted all over Rome for. Heck if you want to get technical about the apostle Peter was considered the first Pope, but I don't believe he ascribed to that distinction or would have ever wanted it.
Papal historiography (see above) starts with Damasus I. I don't see why that supertitle (if it's true it was first attributed to Vigilius first - I don't know) makes a difference.

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Another issue is this pope started the enforcement of compliance to the holy church's dictates upon pain of death world wide as it was known back then.
What exactly are you talking about? Care to be more specific?

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This era started what we know as the dark ages where literally millions of people were burned at the stake or killed in many tortuous ways for being a heretic.
Millions?
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Old 03-02-2005, 01:05 AM   #77
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Originally Posted by Lafcadio
You have a point here, but I noticed two different behaviours.
If it's a controversial, insufficiently backedup, topic (like Trojan war), such arguments are not considered. Silence may be likely due to the lack of documents.
We don't have the means to go beyond the traditions such as the Trojan War. It is vain to build speculation on speculation (or formulate "hypotheses" on "hypotheses").

Quote:
Originally Posted by Lafcadio
If it's upon some very well documented topic (greek or roman world), such arguments are considered. As the lack of documents, even significant, can be extrapolated to a degree. We have the words of some ancient erudites, so we know what is reasonable to ask from them to know and know not. And no ancient historian proves he can track other countries' history but those they strongly interacted with.
Indeed, it's a matter of what one expects, but nor me, nor other claim absolute truths here, just formulate hypothesis.
I don't think that you can make any generalisations here.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Lafcadi
Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
They didn't lose their Nebuchadnezzar traditions. Why should they necessarily lose others? They didn't even lose a version of the Nabonidus tradition.
I don't know why. Why Herodotus mentions Nabonidus (Labynetus) and not Belshazzar? Do you think a part of Herodotus' text was destroyed? Maybe it was his own selection, or maybe he didn't hear about him. After all, the information came scarce, especially if you wouldn't travel to find it yourself. Probably Herodotus took this informations from an intermediary source (possibly persian). That may apply for a lot of historical informations that passed from Middle East to Greece.
Perhaps you are starting to see some reason for difference: Herodotus made enquiries because he didn't know but wanted to find out more, though was reliant on the information he received, so missed all sorts of information. Jewish traditions weren't about enquiries, they were either held or absorbed. Herodotus was starting on the road to the writing of history the Jews at this stage weren't.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Lafcadi
Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
So you don't really mind the notion of Belshazzar surviving in Hebrew tradition, be it legendary or not.
Hebrew, not greek. Greeks seem to miss it and they are also geographically further away.
So are you arguing that it's not difficult to understand that the Hebrews could maintain a tradition which included Belshazzar, though get the facts muddled up and think that he was the son of Nebuchadnezzar, just as they confused Nebuchadnezzar with the anti-Nabonidus propaganda (which you apparently take as literal)?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Lafcadi
Maybe my formulation seems a bit bloated, considering he didn't replace his father role in yearly ceremonials, but he was the full administrator of Babylonia.
So how was he any different from a satrap?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Lafcadi
I don't understand where do you disagree with me because I mentioned that Nabonidus lost his grasp due to his long absence, not because his left.
Nabonidus didn't lose his grasp. This is just propaganda against the loser. He was following definite policy in his efforts to guarantee trade via the south. He had no tie to Babylon requiring him to stay there. The Chaldeans had settled further south and had extended their control to the north until they took over Babylon.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Lafcadi
This is a becoming process not an abrupt status change. Nabonidus chronicle mentions repeatedly: nth year - king in Theima, prince in Akkad, yearly ceremonials were not held. I expect this had a large impact not only on people, but also on clergy and noblemen.
Sure.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Lafcadi
Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
You've already allowed tradition to maintain it.
Tradition means stories, not pure records. "the prophet from the babylonian court" could have been such a story (bunch of stories) which was (were) "dressed" with political conotations during Maccabeans.
Fine. So, you should find nothing remarkable in the muddled recollection of Belshazzar found in Daniel.


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Old 03-02-2005, 01:07 AM   #78
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Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
For what it's worth, both Nabonidus and Nebuchadnezzar, though I'm not sure about information regarding Belshazzar in the scrolls. Maybe, spin, you could enlighten us there?
Well, umm, nothing that I know of.


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Old 03-02-2005, 01:45 AM   #79
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Jim:
Quote:
(ref: day=year) Why should we do anything so weird?

Because it fits history and day for a year is rock solid with Biblical scholars world wide, Maybe not here but that fact will never ring any bells outside of the circles of iidb.
You mean "desperate apologists world-wide", I think.
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If we simply read what the author wrote, we get somewhat more than a year later. You reject this because you don't like the result.

You must read differently than I do.
Indeed! How naive of me to read "483 days" as "483 days".
Quote:
If you're going to change the units, you might as well follow the Bible's "a thousand years is as a day" guideline and turn those 483 days into 483,000 years...

What works is the day for a year the reference in the Bible you speak of in 11 Peter is not speaking of prophecy but the way God views time. God is outside of time this is what its trying to say.
Actually, it IS speaking of prophecy. It's an early attempt to resolve the failed prophecy of the imminent return of JC:
Quote:
Originally Posted by 2 Peter, Ch. 3
Where is the promise of his coming? for since the fathers fell asleep, all things continue as they were from the beginning of the creation...

...But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day. The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness...
Quote:
It gets worse! Ezekiel 4:6 "And when thou hast accomplished them, lie again on thy right side, and thou shalt bear the iniquity of the house of Judah forty days: I have appointed thee each day for a year." This is plainly a period of penance: one day of penance for each year of iniquity. The same applies to Numbers 14:34. Talk about "out of context"...

This is Biblical proof that a day for a year was used in the Bible. I never claimed it was in context for the specific prophecy I was discussing. I used this to show how it was used by God in His working with the Children of Isreal. Like I said this concept is rock solid. If you've never heard of it then this tells me how much you've studied Biblical prophecy. All major Biblical scholars outside of the ranks of the critics are fully aware of day for a year in prophecy.
I've seen it before, yes. I expect that many Biblical scholars are "aware" of it in that sense. But there is still no scriptural support for the notion of arbitrarily assuming that any given prophet really means "years" when he mentions "days".

And I think you're still confusing "desperate apologists" with "Biblical scholars" here.
Quote:
Well duh, if you take 1798 and subtract 538 it equals 1260 years. Looks good to me.
...Except that it doesn't work. You seem to have missed my point.

The period from 538 AD to 1798 AD is 1260 modern calendar years. This means that it must be MORE than 1260 "360-day prophetic years".

1260 x 365.25 / 360 = 1278 "prophetic years"
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Old 03-02-2005, 02:23 AM   #80
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Originally Posted by spin
We don't have the means to go beyond the traditions such as the Trojan War. It is vain to build speculation on speculation (or formulate "hypotheses" on "hypotheses").
I didn't ment necessarily a legendary event, a real history of Panonnia between huns and magyars is also difficult to shape. There are plenty of gaps in universal history and not all are covered by legends. I tried to address a famous one, maybe it's my fault that it was interpreted as purely from a legend/speculation's point of view.

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I don't think that you can make any generalisations here.
I don't follow you. Generalizations like "ancient greeks didn't know American continent/nubian history/gunpowder technology" ?

Quote:
Perhaps you are starting to see some reason for difference: Herodotus made enquiries because he didn't know but wanted to find out more, though was reliant on the information he received, so missed all sorts of information. Jewish traditions weren't about enquiries, they were either held or absorbed. Herodotus was starting on the road to the writing of history the Jews at this stage weren't.
Of course, but no one claimed the contrary

Quote:
So are you arguing that it's not difficult to understand that the Hebrews could maintain a tradition which included Belshazzar, though get the facts muddled up and think that he was the son of Nebuchadnezzar, just as they confused Nebuchadnezzar with the anti-Nabonidus propaganda
The muddling could have happen much later when two threads of information regarding late Babylonian empire (about Nebuchadnezzar and Belshazzar) collapsed into one. Also the "son of" addition could be a later addition for different purpose considering the not too distant presences of Nebuchadnezzar and Belshazzar and their similar position (rulers of Babylon). I reckon from my own's country traditionals tales a lot of fabulous justificative connections between historical characters. This is one characteristic of the "legendarization"
What you call as anti-Nabonidus propaganda I'm afraid it's just a view. He was the ruler of Babylon (which was the capital). Someone who obviously didn't know where Nabonidus was and what was the reason he was away of Bablyon so long could easily take Belshazzar as a king. What other reasons would have the hebrews to mention Belshazzar as king and not Nabonidus?

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(which you apparently take as literal)?
I have only two sources of information. Nabonidus chronicle and the history written by some secular dudes (some of my books date since the communist period, they were anything but religiously propagandistic).

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So how was he any different from a satrap?
Babylon was empire's capital not a provence's

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Nabonidus didn't lose his grasp. This is just propaganda against the loser.
Rereading Nabonidus chronicle, he even didn't attend his mother's burial, but his son. I have an image of isolation of Nabonidus in arabian desert.

Quote:
He was following definite policy in his efforts to guarantee trade via the south. He had no tie to Babylon requiring him to stay there. The Chaldeans had settled further south and had extended their control to the north until they took over Babylon.
I am not even sure he was there for a trade route. Perhaps he tried to put up a rebellion. But spending about 10 years in a distant corner of the empire is no sign of control.

Quote:
Fine. So, you should find nothing remarkable in the muddled recollection of Belshazzar found in Daniel.
I always find remarkable the long chain of mutations in human culture
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