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11-02-2011, 02:00 PM | #21 |
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Andrew,
As you know I am too stupid to have an authoritative opinion on the dating of P46. If that's the consensus, it still was likely unknown to Origen. How many Patristic references do we have from the period 250 - 325? No many. It might work. I'd have to talk with someone I trust to give me arguments for and against. I am not an expert on anything to do with the dating of manuscripts. To be honest, it seems to me to be a very subjective 'science.' Sinaiticus is a perfect case in point. All the dates seem to early for my liking. The earliest possible date inevitably becomes the date chosen. In this case however, I certainly have no authority whatsoever. |
11-02-2011, 02:37 PM | #22 | |||
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Another curiosity I just noticed while compiling the earliest Clementine references to the various Pauline letters - his almost complete ignorance of Galatians. It's also quite shocking. Here is the only early references to Galatians in Clement:
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Indeed once Galatians 2.19 hits Clement goes back to his usual self, consistently citing the section: Quote:
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There are no references to 2 Thessalonians chapter 1 in Clement. Unless the Biblindex site is faulty, I can't see any references to Philemon in any Church Father (which I think is wrong). Could it possibly be that 1 Cor 15.50 (which now stands suspended in the air like a car dangling from a bridge in Clement's citations) continued into what is now the start of Clement's citations of Galatians? I don't know but there is something curious about such a concentration of Tertullian's attack against Marcion being focused on (a) 1 Corinthians chapter 15 (he almost goes line by line through the contents after 1 Cor 15.25) and (b) the insistence on Tertullian's part that Galatians is so important, so decisive to the Marcionite argument (I don't think Tertullian actually says that the letter was placed first in the canon for this reason from memory; I think scholars make this part up on their own). My point however is - isn't it interesting that the concentration of effort in Tertullian to 'disprove' Marcion (both in Against Heresies and other heretical works) end up corresponding to sections that were unknown to Clement of Alexandria? How is this to be accounted for? Could it be that they were planted into the text by orthodox editors to develop what clearly amount to being 'red herring' arguments to distract from the real beliefs of Marcionitism? Maybe they weren't that crazy after all. |
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11-02-2011, 03:16 PM | #23 | |
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You will hardly find any writer of antiquity who made references to every single book and every single chapter of any ancient texts. By the way, chapter 16 of 1 Corinthians does NOT really deal with doctrinal issues. It is mainly about greetings, salutations and travel itinerary. |
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11-02-2011, 03:36 PM | #24 |
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But Adamantius for example frequently cites these details so too Origen but never Clement
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11-02-2011, 04:20 PM | #25 | |
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11-02-2011, 04:38 PM | #26 | |
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And looking at the reference in Stromata Book Three one could make a case that Clement thinks that it belongs with the material in 1 Corinthians (I can make an even stronger case with material from Galatians chapter 3 momentarily). Here is the original reference in Stromata 3 which starts and ends with 1 Corinthians and has Galatians chapter 2 in the middle followed by extensive section by section references to 1 Corinthians again:
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[2] 1 Cor 5.11 [3] Gal 2.19-20 [4] 1 Cor 5.9 – 6.13 [5] 1 Cor 6.16 [6] 1 Cor 7.5 [7] 1 Cor 7.3 [8] 1 Cor 7.10-14 [9] 1 Cor 6.9-11 |
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11-02-2011, 04:56 PM | #27 |
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11-02-2011, 06:30 PM | #28 |
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No ding dong. I've given you a list of where ALL Patristic sources cite 1 Corinthians 16. If you go to Biblindex you'll see that Origen is the most frequent witness for ANY scriptural passage.
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11-02-2011, 06:43 PM | #29 | |
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This is the more important reference. Notice the intertwining of material from 1 Corinthians and Galatians. The explicit reference to 1 Corinthians might well be a scribal addition but for our present intents and purposes it really doesn't matter. Let me show you what I find interesting in Instructor 1:6:
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11-02-2011, 08:11 PM | #30 | ||||||
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Now let's start looking at the material. The most interesting part for our purposes is when Clement (or the scribe) identifies at least some of the material as coming from 'the First Epistle to the Corinthians':
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Many of you are probably struggling with the second part of the reference though - i.e. "God sent forth His Son, made of a woman, made under the law, to redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons by Him." We want this to apply to Jesus the man. Nevertheless, Clement undoubtedly interpreted the passage in terms of the manner in which the modern Copts do (or at least the writers down to the present that I have read in Stephen J Davis's book Coptic Christology in Practice: Incarnation and Divine Participation in Late Antique and Medieval Egypt. In other words, that the Egyptian Church always understood the Incarnation was an ongoing process. It started with 'the first Christ' and continues to transfer from body to body of 'those born of women.' None of this need imply that Jesus was anything but an angelic being to Clement. As we have seen from Irenaeus, there were ancient users of the Gospel of Mark who divided 'Jesus' from 'Christ.' 'Christ' in the passage from Galatians is both 'the first Christ' born of woman and presumably all subsequent incarnations of his being up until the modern day. Christ is for Clement quite literally 'the Instructor' - not 'original Instructor' but all instructors who adopt initiates as sons. I hope people understand this. If not there is always Athanasius “He became human in order that we might become divine” (On the Incarnation 54). |
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