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04-15-2012, 10:55 PM | #161 | |
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There is indeed a question concerning whether or not the phrase refers to a divine figure. In fact, not only is this questionable, it's something of a controversy. |
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04-16-2012, 04:00 AM | #162 | ||
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The important qualifier in Earl's statement is "the apocalyptic sense." Important because Casey does not deny that Earl is spot on. Debate centers on how Jesus' words may have developed to this sense, not on what it means in that context. |
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04-16-2012, 04:51 AM | #163 |
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04-16-2012, 05:20 AM | #164 | |
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If I'm misrepresenting Earl I'm sure he'll point it out. If you find him unclear, you're welcome to ask him for clarification. In neither case is it appropriate for me to be phrasing his position. |
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04-16-2012, 06:00 AM | #165 |
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How do you when Mark is or is not using the word apocalyptically?
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04-16-2012, 06:28 AM | #166 | |||
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What does “the apocalyptic sense” mean to you? |
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04-16-2012, 07:12 AM | #167 | ||
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04-16-2012, 07:21 AM | #168 | ||||
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04-16-2012, 07:25 AM | #169 |
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What an absurd question.
What it means to me is irrelevant. The question is whether anyone doubts Earl's proposed reading in that context. They do not. Casey questions what Jesus may have meant by the phrase, not what Mark means in this context. Sent from my A500 using Tapatalk 2 |
04-16-2012, 07:31 AM | #170 | ||
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What would I be expected to understand by Quote:
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