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Old 04-15-2012, 10:55 PM   #161
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And what makes Casey infallible? I didn't find him so.

Earl Doherty
Nothing whatsoever. But as he is perhaps the leading expert when it comes to the aramaic underlying or influencing Greek of the Gospels (or directly transliterated within them), the fact that he published an entire monography on this issue so recently suggests rather conclusively that, contrary to your statement:
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There is no question that Son of Man referred to a divine figure, especially when it appeared in Q, and it stayed that way when it was applied to Jesus in the Gospels in the apocalyptic sense.
There is indeed a question concerning whether or not the phrase refers to a divine figure. In fact, not only is this questionable, it's something of a controversy.
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Old 04-16-2012, 04:00 AM   #162
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty View Post

And what makes Casey infallible? I didn't find him so.

Earl Doherty
Nothing whatsoever. But as he is perhaps the leading expert when it comes to the aramaic underlying or influencing Greek of the Gospels (or directly transliterated within them), the fact that he published an entire monography on this issue so recently suggests rather conclusively that, contrary to your statement:
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Originally Posted by EarlDoherty View Post
There is no question that Son of Man referred to a divine figure, especially when it appeared in Q, and it stayed that way when it was applied to Jesus in the Gospels in the apocalyptic sense.
There is indeed a question concerning whether or not the phrase refers to a divine figure. In fact, not only is this questionable, it's something of a controversy.
I think you give Casey too much credit and Vermes too little, though I find both of their convictions that they can create primary sources from secondary literate naive and optimistic. Casey's effect is also diminished by his almost ceaseless polemic.

The important qualifier in Earl's statement is "the apocalyptic sense." Important because Casey does not deny that Earl is spot on. Debate centers on how Jesus' words may have developed to this sense, not on what it means in that context.
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Old 04-16-2012, 04:51 AM   #163
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The important qualifier in Earl's statement is "the apocalyptic sense." .
Could you rephrase what you think Earl was saying in your own words?
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Old 04-16-2012, 05:20 AM   #164
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The important qualifier in Earl's statement is "the apocalyptic sense." .
Could you rephrase what you think Earl was saying in your own words?
No. He's saying exactly what it says.

If I'm misrepresenting Earl I'm sure he'll point it out. If you find him unclear, you're welcome to ask him for clarification. In neither case is it appropriate for me to be phrasing his position.
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Old 04-16-2012, 06:00 AM   #165
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How do you when Mark is or is not using the word apocalyptically?
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Old 04-16-2012, 06:28 AM   #166
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Could you rephrase what you think Earl was saying in your own words?
No. He's saying exactly what it says.

If I'm misrepresenting Earl I'm sure he'll point it out. If you find him unclear, you're welcome to ask him for clarification. In neither case is it appropriate for me to be phrasing his position.
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The important qualifier in Earl's statement is "the apocalyptic sense." .

What does “the apocalyptic sense” mean to you?
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Old 04-16-2012, 07:12 AM   #167
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How do you when Mark is or is not using the word apocalyptically?
Sometimes you don't. But when he cites an apocalypse it's probably a pretty good indication.

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What does “the apocalyptic sense” mean to you?
In a sense of or pertaining to an apocalypse. There is no "to me" about it.

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Old 04-16-2012, 07:21 AM   #168
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How do you when Mark is or is not using the word apocalyptically?
Sometimes you don't. But when he cites an apocalypse it's probably a pretty good indication.

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What does “the apocalyptic sense” mean to you?
In a sense of or pertaining to an apocalypse. There is no "to me" about it.

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In a sense of or pertaining to an apocalypse. There is no "to me" about it.
What importance do you attach to that?
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Old 04-16-2012, 07:25 AM   #169
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What an absurd question.

What it means to me is irrelevant. The question is whether anyone doubts Earl's proposed reading in that context. They do not. Casey questions what Jesus may have meant by the phrase, not what Mark means in this context.

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Old 04-16-2012, 07:31 AM   #170
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What an absurd question.

What it means to me is irrelevant. The question is whether anyone doubts Earl's proposed reading in that context. They do not. Casey questions what Jesus may have meant by the phrase, not what Mark means in this context.

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I’m reading it " in that context".

What would I be expected to understand by
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In a sense of or pertaining to an apocalypse.
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