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Old 04-17-2004, 06:47 AM   #11
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Originally Posted by Steven Carr
The lecturer at Penn State has the following
'There are also stories about the objects of their veneration: they are said to be a man who was punished with death as a criminal and the fell wood of his cross, thus providing suitable liturgy for the depraved fiends: they worship what they deserve.'

http://jessica.banks.net.nz/RLST124SP04SB1.htm

Personally, I can't see any huge difference between the accusation that Jesus was killed as a criminal, or that he was killed for his wickedness.

Hengel, hardly a liberal, writes '"To say that their ceremonies centre on a man put to death for his crime and on the fatal wood of the cross is to assign to these abandoned wretches sanctuaries which are appropriate to them and the kind of worship they deserve." [In Hengel, Crucifixion, 3, citing Caecilius in Minucius Felix’ dialogue Octavius 9.4] according to
http://www.faithtacoma.org/sermons/G...alatians31.htm

Perhaps Hengel is not a real scholar?


'To say that their ceremonies centre on a man put to death for his crime and on the fatal wood of the cross, is to assign to these abandoned wretches sanctuaries which are appropriate to them and the kind of worship they deserve."'

http://www.pastornet.net.au/jmm/articles/9396.htm - John Mark ministries (perhaps secret Doherty sympathisers)


'To say that a malefactor put to death for his crimes, the wood of the death-dealing cross, are objects of their veneration is to assign fitting altars to be abandoned wretches and the kind of worship they deserve.

http://artemis.austincollege.edu/aca.../Octavius.html
Thanks for that, Steve. You've shown that at least one other person has translated it as "as a criminal", so I've accused Doherty unjustly for trying to provide an inaccurate translation.
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Old 04-17-2004, 07:20 AM   #12
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Originally Posted by GakuseiDon

"Jesus died as a criminal"
"Jesus punished for his crimes"
"Jesus punished for his wickedness?

Don't you think there is a difference, from a Christian perspective?
I would expect a Christian to respond to all three the same way. I would expect him/her to start by denying his guilt and follow it up by asserting a conspiracy on the part of the Jewish religious leaders or the Jews in general.
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Old 04-17-2004, 07:51 AM   #13
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Originally Posted by Toto
No. You are trying to find some distinction that is not there, and is not the basis of Doherty's analysis in any case. "Died as a criminal" has the necessary implication of dying because of alleged crimes, or dying in a shameful manner.
If there is no distinction, then that's fine. So why is there a problem in the presentation, as Doherty says?

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Why didn't Minucius claim that Jesus was innocent, or that he survived the crucifixion, or that he rose from the dead, or any of the usual Christian explanations? Why didn't MF defend Christianity in the way that Arnobius did?
I think that Minucius does do some of these things. But some things he leaves out for his target audience, just as Tertullian does. Arnobius wrote around 300 CE. If Doherty is right, then Minucius wrote more than 100 years earlier, to a pagan audience still atuned to the "shame of the cross".

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You keep repeating this, as if everyone agrees that Tertullian was an HJ believer.
Is there anyone who thinks that Tertullian wasn't a HJ believer? Anyone at all? Doherty seems to accept it.

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Let's put aside for now the fact that you have not clearly shown what Tertullian thought about a HJ. You seem to be implying that since one alleged HJ believer wrote one piece of work that did not mention the historical Jesus (and other pieces that did), that another author who does not mention the historical Jesus must also believe in him. I don't see how this follows.
Close, but not quite that. I'm saying that if one alleged HJ believer wrote one piece of work that did not mention the historical Jesus (and other pieces that did), then we can't assume that another author who does not mention the historical Jesus and covers similar material in his apologetic wasn't necessarily a HJer.

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How does this help your case? The cross was a symbol used by many religious groups. Minucius does not seem to connect that symbol to a recent crucifixion of a godman.
I think he does, though indirectly, when he says:

"you wander far from the neighbourhood of the truth, in thinking either that a criminal deserved, or that an earthly being was able, to be believed God. Miserable indeed is that man whose whole hope is dependent on mortal man, for all his help is put an end to with the extinction of the man".

This isn't inconsistent with a belief in a crucified HJ.
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Old 04-17-2004, 07:59 AM   #14
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Originally Posted by Semblance
Octavius doesn't seem to be denying that there was a crucifixion...

Where does he defend the crucifixion? This would clearly be expected if a human Jesus generated the movement. As Doherty pointed out, later commentators took pains to do exactly that because of the nature of the charges in this document. Pointing to other documents that don't mention the crucifixion doesn't address the problem here.
I think it does. If a document by a HJer, covering similar topics, and written at around the same time to a second document, doesn't mention the crucifixion, then why should we expect the second document to mention the crucifixion?

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In this case, Christians are wicked because their founder was wicked.

You left out the death part. A clearer paraphrase would be "Christians are wicked because their founder was put to death for being wicked." Now where is the clarification from Octavius that later commentators felt needed to be said?

In fact, Octavius makes it clear that someone worshipped thusly would not only be not a criminal, but not an earthly being as well.

Where does Octavius "make this clear"? Are you reading that into this sentence?
Yes, in that passage in which the sentence appears:

"you wander far from the neighbourhood of the truth, in thinking either that a criminal deserved, or that an earthly being was able, to be believed God. Miserable indeed is that man whose whole hope is dependent on mortal man, for all his help is put an end to with the extinction of the man".
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Old 04-17-2004, 09:50 AM   #15
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I think "punished as a criminal" can have two meanings:
a) punished like a criminal (which does not say Jesus was a criminal)
b) punished because he was a criminal.
According to the translations I saw on this thread, I would lean towards b).
Frankly, at that point, I do not know the implications, except that for the second case, any Christian would object.

I think the defense of Minucius Felix is the same that Tatian did regarding Christian writings, in the passage scrutinized ealier in another thread:

"We do not act as fools, O Greeks, nor utter idle tales, when we announce that God was born in the form of a man. I call on you who reproach us to compare your mythical accounts with our narrations. Athene, as they say, took the form of Deiphobus for the sake of Hector, and the unshorn Phoebus for the sake of Admetus fed the trailing-footed oxen, and the spouse us came as an old woman to Semele. But, while you treat seriously such things, how can you deride us? Your Asclepios died, and he who ravished fifty virgins in one night at Thespiae lost his life by delivering himself to the devouring flame.

Prometheus, fastened to Caucasus, suffered punishment for his good deeds to men. According to you, Zeus is envious, and hides the dream from men, wishing their destruction
. Wherefore, looking at your own memorials, vouchsafe us your approval, though it were only as dealing in legends similar to your own. We, however, do not deal in folly, but your legends are only idle tales."

Essentially, Tatian admitted those Christian stories looked legend-like also, but the Greek ones are ridiculous. And the Pagans, from what they believe in, are not qualified to criticize the Christian ones. TAKE OFF !!!

This is a limited and soft defense of what is likely the gospels. Why did Tatian not go any further? Possibly not to get entangled into the gospels' mess (which would explain why he wrote the Diatessaron, a nice harmony eliminating things such as the conflicting genealogies and avoiding the dual genetic father problem and "proving" the canonical gospels can be reconciled)

I think the defense of Minucius about cross & crosses, and the man crucified on it, is also a "soft" defense. Why "soft"?
Maybe he thought that was a good stategy. After all he had his Octavius keeping his cool and looking unruffled under a downpour of accusations against Christians. Just to "prove" you can be a Christian and not be a fanatic OR react with hate to calumny from Pagans. Also to "prove" this matters can be discussed between Pagans & Christians on a very gentlemanly basis.

"For in that you attribute to our religion the worship of a criminal and his cross, you wander far from the neighbourhood of the truth, in thinking either that a criminal deserved, or that an earthly being was able, to be believed God. Miserable indeed is that man whose whole hope is dependent on mortal man, for all his help is put an end to with the extinction of the man. ... whereas honour is more truly rendered to an illustrious man, and love is more pleasantly given to a very good man. ... Crosses, moreover, we neither worship nor wish for. You, indeed, who consecrate gods of wood, adore wooden crosses perhaps as parts of your gods. For your very standards, as well as your banners; and flags of your camp, what else are they but crosses glided and adorned? Your victorious trophies not only imitate the appearance of a simple cross, but also that of a man affixed to it. ... and when a man adores God with a pure mind, with handsoutstretched. Thus the sign of the cross either is sustained by a natural reason, or your own religion is formed with respect to it."

Minucius does not go as far as Tatian in "closing the loop". But the message is clear:
Christians believe the ONE (crucified) is not a criminal or strictly an earthly being. He also brings about that crucified so-called criminal/normal_mortal is believed God (this notion is not in the Pagan's accusation). Then he suggests the man in question is illustrious and very good. Ant that Christians do not worship crosses (plural). But nothing is said about a cross (singular).
Finally, he says that Pagans adore crosses in different ways, even those which look to have a man on it. But then Minucius does not say anything like: you also adore crosses, let us worship a particular one. However his final comments are going in that direction:
"... and when a man adores God with a pure mind, with handsoutstretched. Thus the sign of the cross either is sustained by a natural reason, or your own religion is formed with respect to it."

Doherty's comments are based on the assumption the accusation (likely from a fictitious character) should have been replied to by Octavius (probably another fictitious character) with virulence and zeal and completeness. But that does not mean that Minucius had to oblige, isn't it?

Best regards, Bernard
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Old 04-17-2004, 10:00 AM   #16
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Quote:
Originally Posted by GakuseiDon

Is there anyone who thinks that Tertullian wasn't a HJ believer? Anyone at all?
Doesn't Tertullian say somewhere that there were Roman records of the birth of Jesus?

'But there is historical proof that at this very time a census had been taken in Judaea by Sentius Saturninus, which might have satisfied their inquiry respecting the family and descent of Christ.....'

While the history might me wrong, it is an attempt at history.
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Old 04-17-2004, 10:17 AM   #17
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Originally Posted by Toto
No. You are trying to find some distinction that is not there, and is not the basis of Doherty's analysis in any case. "Died as a criminal" has the necessary implication of dying because of alleged crimes, or dying in a shameful manner.
Not that I have much invested in this debate either way (and I am mostly unfamiliar with the sources), but dying "as a criminal" and dying "for wickedness" could mean the difference between dying as an unjustly accused man, and dying as a justly accused man. I would say it's ambiguous.

Quote:
Why didn't Minucius claim that Jesus was innocent, or that he survived the crucifixion, or that he rose from the dead, or any of the usual Christian explanations? Why didn't MF defend Christianity in the way that Arnobius did?
Good question.

Quote:
You seem to be implying that since one alleged HJ believer wrote one piece of work that did not mention the historical Jesus (and other pieces that did), that another author who does not mention the historical Jesus must also believe in him. I don't see how this follows.
No, he's simply saying it's possible in principle, which blunts some of Doherty's force.

Quote:
How does this help your case? The cross was a symbol used by many religious groups. Minucius does not seem to connect that symbol to a recent crucifixion of a godman.
My reading is that he's simply saying the cross is a popular object of devotion, and so why shouldn't the Christians use it as well?
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Old 04-17-2004, 02:09 PM   #18
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Originally Posted by GakuseiDon
If there is no distinction, then that's fine. So why is there a problem in the presentation, as Doherty says? . . .
Doherty's method is to analyze these texts as literary works, looking for signs of a HJ, and looking for missing references to the HJ where they might have been expected.

The problem is that Minucius does not write as if he is defending a HJ. He does not counter statements about a criminal dying on the cross with the explanation that Jesus was innocent and was dying for us or to atone for our sins - which the church today considers the heart of Christian theology. He forces Christian apologists to invent all sorts of reasons for these omissions, or to read things into the text that are not there.

I don't think that you can read Doherty as if he were an apologist. He does not "prove" things the way an apologist does who assumes the truth of a particular document, where A shows that B must be true, which shows etc, etc. His background is evidently literary analysis.
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Old 04-17-2004, 04:05 PM   #19
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He forces Christian apologists to invent all sorts of reasons for these omissions, or to read things into the text that are not there.

Which is exactly what GakuseiDon is doing in this thread!

...as Christians do indeed worship a man...who suffered death as a criminal.

Preconception.

While no Christian would deny that Jesus was crucified as a criminal... [emphasis added]

Preconception. If you are going to start with this conclusion, then you're just wasting time with these texts.

...then why should we expect the second document to mention the crucifixion?

For the same reason that later commentators felt very much obliged to mention it. One very real possibility is that the later commentators did not share the religious beliefs of the author of MF.

Quote:
In fact, Octavius makes it clear that someone worshipped thusly would not only be not a criminal, but not an earthly being as well. [emphasis added]

Where does Octavius "make this clear"?

...in that passage in which the sentence appears:

"you wander far from the neighbourhood of the truth, in thinking either that a criminal deserved, or that an earthly being was able, to be believed God. Miserable indeed is that man whose whole hope is dependent on mortal man, for all his help is put an end to with the extinction of the man".
The only thing "clear" is that you've read your preconceptions into the text. The text simply does not say what you claim.

This is best summarized by Doherty:


Quote:
Where is the necessary qualification that no Christian could surely have remained silent on? Where is the saving defence that in fact this crucified man was not a mortal, but was indeed God? Some claim that this is what Minucius is implying, but such an implication is so opaque, it can only be derived from reading it into the text. Octavius' words certainly do not contain it, although they do imply that the writer knows of some Christians who believe such things, but he has no sympathy with them.
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Old 04-17-2004, 04:06 PM   #20
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Originally Posted by Toto
Doherty's method is to analyze these texts as literary works, looking for signs of a HJ, and looking for missing references to the HJ where they might have been expected.

The problem is that Minucius does not write as if he is defending a HJ.
I would say that Minucius isn't writing to defend a HJ. His concerns are attacking pagan mythology, and answering the misguided beliefs about the Christians of the day. He seems to only touch on a HJ (if he does at all) in so far as to defend Christians as worshipping someone wicked.

Quote:
He does not counter statements about a criminal dying on the cross with the explanation that Jesus was innocent and was dying for us or to atone for our sins - which the church today considers the heart of Christian theology.
I think there is more than enough in the text to say that Jesus was innocent.

For in that you attribute to our religion the worship of a criminal and his cross, you wander far from the neighbourhood of the truth, in thinking either that a criminal deserved, or that an earthly being was able, to be believed God. Miserable indeed is that man whose whole hope is dependent on mortal man, for all his help is put an end to with the extinction of the man...

... The Egyptians certainly choose out a man for themselves whom they may worship; him alone they propitiate; him they consult about all things; to him they slaughter victims; and he who to others is a god, to himself is certainly a man whether he will or no, for he does not deceive his own consciousness, if he deceives that of others. Moreover, a false flattery disgracefully caresses princes and kings, not as great and chosen men, as is just, but as gods; whereas honour is more truly rendered to an illustrious man, and love is more pleasantly given to a very good man.


It's very indirect, but what else can Octavius be trying to defend here?

As for why he doesn't cover the subject of the atonement explicitly, I'd say that it's because that isn't the focus of his apologetic. He is defending Christians and attacking pagan beliefs. Tertullian doesn't refer to it in Ad nationes. Why not? (Note that I haven't referred to Christ's atonement for our sins in any of my posts either).

Quote:
He forces Christian apologists to invent all sorts of reasons for these omissions, or to read things into the text that are not there.
I kind of agree. There has to be a reason why Minucius Felix, Tatian and Tertullian could construct similar apologetics that barely touches on a HJ. But any such explanation needs to account for the fact that (definitely) Tertullian and (arguably) Tatian were HJers. What is the best explanation, IYO?

Quote:
I don't think that you can read Doherty as if he were an apologist. He does not "prove" things the way an apologist does who assumes the truth of a particular document, where A shows that B must be true, which shows etc, etc. His background is evidently literary analysis.
OK. Why does he not analyse Tertullian's Ad nationes then? It has a clear literary relationship with Minucius Felix, but Doherty ignores it. Yet Ad nationes also has no interest in directly defending a HJ, and doesn't even refer to "Jesus" and "Christ".

Without that analysis, Doherty's research is incomplete. I can think of no reason that we could apply to Ad nationes for the lack of directly defending a HJ that also couldn't be applied to Minucius Felix.
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