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Old 04-19-2008, 11:44 AM   #41
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That's eisegesis. The text doesn't support your claim. It doesn't allude to illegitimacies or irregularities in the genealogy.
It doesn't?
Tell you what. You made the original claim, you back it up. OK? Otherwise we forget it.


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Old 04-19-2008, 11:50 AM   #42
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It doesn't?
Tell you what. You made the original claim, you back it up. OK? Otherwise we forget it.


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Who are the women in the genealogy and why are they there?

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Old 04-19-2008, 11:55 AM   #43
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And neither story -- notably, especially Matthew's, where the emphasis is on Emmanuel, not virgin -- absolutely excludes human participation in the conception of Jesus. On this, see Robert J. Miller's Born Divine:The Births of Jesus and Other Sons of God (or via: amazon.co.uk).
This can be search on Amazon. Miller discusses the issue in chapter 12, "Is There A Virgin Birth in Matthew?" But the first thing he says is that Luke clearly says that Mary will conceive while still a virgin. He then goes on to say that Matthew never read Luke.

It is apparent that Miller is tiptoeing around an audience that thinks that scripture is divine and must be believed on some level, so he has a motivation to extract a naturalistic birth for Jesus. I am not convinced that it would be worth my time to try to follow the logic.
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Old 04-19-2008, 11:57 AM   #44
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Tell you what. You made the original claim, you back it up. OK? Otherwise we forget it.


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Who are the women in the genealogy and why are they there?
What... the discovery method? I've done my share of fishing in the classroom as well. I await substance to your claim.


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Old 04-19-2008, 12:00 PM   #45
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And neither story -- notably, especially Matthew's, where the emphasis is on Emmanuel, not virgin -- absolutely excludes human participation in the conception of Jesus. On this, see Robert J. Miller's Born Divine:The Births of Jesus and Other Sons of God (or via: amazon.co.uk).
This can be search on Amazon. Miller discusses the issue in chapter 12, "Is There A Virgin Birth in Matthew?" But the first thing he says is that Luke clearly says that Mary will conceive while still a virgin. He then goes on to say that Matthew never read Luke.

It is apparent that Miller is tiptoeing around an audience that thinks that scripture is divine and must be believed on some level,
How is this apparent?

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so he has a motivation to extract a naturalistic birth for Jesus.
So, like Charles Gadda, you are a mind reader now? And even if he does have a motivation, how do you know for certain that his work on the question is spurred on by it?

Jeffrey

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Old 04-19-2008, 03:40 PM   #46
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For a more balanced look at Boteach, see here for his sermon that won for him the London Times Preacher of the Year award, along with accompanying profile.
Quote from the Sermon:
Whereas our ancestors struggled to keep the faith amid poverty and persecution, we today struggle simply to stave off slumber in the Synagogue. I personally have developed a new pill called 'Preachagra' that keeps congregants upright through the the sermon. How did we ever sink so low?
How, indeed.

Boteach is a character and an entertainer. But a source of enlightenment?
Indeed not. He is a shrill, hysterical, frothing point dodger and straw man builder.
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Old 04-19-2008, 06:40 PM   #47
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JW:
Nonsense (I'm not going to be diplomatic like Spin). Instead of reading (or maybe just referring to) Miller you should have read "Matthew" instead:

http://www.errancywiki.com/index.php/Matthew_1

JW:
This "absolutely excludes human participation in the conception of Jesus".
It does, does it?
I think we need to resolve Matthew 1 by itself before going to other verses that might suggest a different way of understanding Matthew.

The verses that lead to the conclusion that Joseph had no sexual relations with Mary are the following--

18 Now the birth of Jesus Christ was as follows: After His mother Mary was betrothed to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Spirit.

Here the phrase, "...before they came together...," seems to state that they had not had sexual relations. If not, then what else might the language mean?

19 Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not wanting to make her a public example, was minded to put her away secretly.

To what was Joseph responding to for which he did not want to make Mary a public example? What had Mary done other than get pregnant and why would Joseph act as he did except if he knew that he was not the father?

20 But while he thought about these things, behold, an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream, saying, “Joseph, son of David, do not be afraid to take to you Mary your wife, for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Spirit.

To what could this language refer other than that Mary is pregnant and Joseph is not the father?

24 Then Joseph, being aroused from sleep, did as the angel of the Lord commanded him and took to him his wife,
25 and did not know her till she had brought forth her firstborn Son.


Can this language be read to say something other than that Joseph had no sexual relations with Mary until after the birth of Jesus?

The language of Matthew seems very explicit in telling us that Joseph did not have sexual relations with Mary and therefore, could not have been the father of the child she carried. Is it possible to understand Matthew in any other way given the repeated references to Mary's pregnancy and the Joseph's reaction to that pregnancy?
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Old 04-19-2008, 08:07 PM   #48
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This can be search on Amazon. Miller discusses the issue in chapter 12, "Is There A Virgin Birth in Matthew?" But the first thing he says is that Luke clearly says that Mary will conceive while still a virgin. He then goes on to say that Matthew never read Luke.

It is apparent that Miller is tiptoeing around an audience that thinks that scripture is divine and must be believed on some level,
How is this apparent?
"The day will come when the mystical generation of Jesus by the Supreme Being as his father, in the womb of a virgin, will be classed with the fable of the generation of Minerva in the brain of Jupiter." Thomas Jefferson, 1823.

That day has not yet come. Miller is careful to be respectful of people who believe in the virgin birth, just as he is careful to show respect for those who do not believe in the virgin birth. What would you deduce from this?

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so he has a motivation to extract a naturalistic birth for Jesus.
So, like Charles Gadda, you are a mind reader now? And even if he does have a motivation, how do you know for certain that his work on the question is spurred on by it?

Jeffrey

Jeffrey
It is an elementary deduction. The natural reading of the text is that Jesus was born of a virgin. Christians from the earliest time read the text as saying that Jesus was born of a virgin, as did the opponents that we know about. Now a member of the Jesus Seminar tries to explain that is not what the text actually says. And we know that there is a long tradition of Protestant Rationalism that tries to explain the apparently supernatural events of the Bible as the product of natural forces.
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Old 04-19-2008, 08:11 PM   #49
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That's eisegesis. The text doesn't support your claim. It doesn't allude to illegitimacies or irregularities in the genealogy.
It doesn't?
Tell you what. You made the original claim, you back it up. OK? Otherwise we forget it.
Still waiting for you to support your claim.


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Old 04-20-2008, 06:50 AM   #50
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JW:
Nonsense (I'm not going to be diplomatic like Spin). Instead of reading (or maybe just referring to) Miller you should have read "Matthew" instead:

http://www.errancywiki.com/index.php/Matthew_1


JW:
This "absolutely excludes human participation in the conception of Jesus".
It does, does it? Perhaps you'll tell me how in the light of say the assertions in John 1: 12-13; 1 John 2:29, 3:9, 4:7, 5:1, 5:18 that Christians are "begotten by (ek) the spirit" or "begotten by (ek) God" or the OT references in Gen 4:1, 29:31-32, 30:22-23; Ruth 4:13 to God as the direct cause of the specific human originated pregnancies of Eve, Leah, Rachel, and Ruth, that Matthew's assertion that Mary was pregnant by (ek) the holy spirit absolutely excludes human participation in a person's conception?

Jeffrey
Jeffrey, just out of curiousity: does not the 'bloods' in ouk ex haimaton in Jn 1:13 signify 'outside of human procreative chain' ?

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