Soul Invictus

I was discussing this with a friend of mine, and I'm currently trying to verify some information.

In Matt 5:31-32 the NIV states:

Quote:

It has been said, 'Anyone who divorces his wife must give her a certificate of divorce.'[a] 32But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, causes her to become an adulteress, and anyone who marries the divorced woman commits adultery.

The KJV reads:

Quote:

31It hath been said, Whosoever shall put away his wife, let him give her a writing of divorcement: 32But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.

Matt 19:9 NIV reads:

Quote:

9I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, and marries another woman commits adultery."

The KJV reads:

Quote:

9And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.

Now, back in Deut 24:1-2 the NIV says:

Quote:

1 If a man marries a woman who becomes displeasing to him because he finds something indecent about her, and he writes her a certificate of divorce, gives it to her and sends her from his house, 2 and if after she leaves his house she becomes the wife of another man,

The KJV reads:

Quote:

1When a man hath taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favour in his eyes, because he hath found some uncleanness in her: then let him write her a bill of divorcement, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house. 2And when she is departed out of his house, she may go and be another man's wife.

Lastly, in Romans 7:2-3 NIV says:

Quote:

2For example, by law a married woman is bound to her husband as long as he is alive, but if her husband dies, she is released from the law of marriage. 3So then, if she marries another man while her husband is still alive, she is called an adulteress. But if her husband dies, she is released from that law and is not an adulteress, even though she marries another man.

The KJV says:

Quote:

2For the woman which hath an husband is bound by the law to her husband so long as he liveth; but if the husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of her husband. 3So then if, while her husband liveth, she be married to another man, she shall be called an adulteress: but if her husband be dead, she is free from that law; so that she is no adulteress, though she be married to another man.

Now, at the time of this OP, I don't have my New Oxford Annotated Bible with me. I'm not even sure if this is still considered the version anymore.

I used these passages to illustrate, first, the differences in wording. I think this carries value.

Here's my questions per my verse comparison.

Matt 5:31-32

The NIV references divorcing one's wife and issuing a certificate of divorcement. The KJV references putting away one's wife and issuing a writing of divorcement.

Q: What does it mean to 'put away'? Why didn't the KJV use 'divorce' instead? I conclude that they can't mean the same thing otherwise the KJV would have used 'divorce' instead of put away since the KJV already recognizes the concept of divorce by using it in the passage.

Q: Is there a difference between fornication/adultery and marital unfaithfulness? I ask because I wanted to verify if marital unfaithfulness is exclusively limited to a sexual violation.

A note for a later point; although divorcing one's wife may result in her being an adulteress, there is no implicit or explicit reference that states that divorcing her for reasons outside of fornication/adultery/marital unfaithfulness is unlawful.

Matt 19:9

Both versions demonstrably indicate that the man commits adultery if he divorces outside of certain instances.

Q: What is the impact of that decision?

I'm seeing no implication that doing this renders new marriages invalid/void or 'not acceptable in His eyes'.

Q: Is there any reason to assume that it isn't?

Deut 24:1-2

This verse mentions that a man might divorce his wife because he has found something indecent or unclean about her.

Q: What exactly do these concepts mean for this verse? Since this passage mentions nothing about it being wrong/illegal to divorce his wife under these circumstances, are the above verses from Matthew incompatible with this OT passage? If so, why?

Romans 7:2-3

This is the only verse that I can find that specifically mentions being able to remarry.

Q: What does the concept of being 'bound' mean?
Q: If a woman is divorced for being unfaithful, is she still bound to her husband, since he is still living?

andrewcriddle

The word translated "Marital Unfaithfulness" in NIV Matthew 5:32 and 19:9 and "Fornication" in the KJV of those verses is PORNEIA.

The exact meaning of the word in context is unclear but it must refer to some sort of sexual issue. It can't mean things like drunkenness financial dishonesty etc.

Andrew Criddle

brianscott1977

The word for “divorce” in Matthew 5:31-32 can mean “set free, send away, or divorce.”

It seems to be clearly pointing to the idea of divorce. The KJV was translated a long time ago and the English language has changed over the years. In this case “divorce” and “putting away” are different ways of saying the same thing. It is a difference of style, not meaning.

John Kesler

The New JPS translation renders Deuteronomy 24:1 as "...She fails to please him because he finds something obnoxious about her..." and the Jewish Study Bible notes that the, "exact meaning [of obnoxious/unseemly] is debated in early Jewish texts." Whatever it meant, the issue in Deuteronomy and in Matthew isn't whether divorce was allowed--that was a given--but what happened after divorce. Deuteronomy forbids the woman's first husband from taking her back after she has been divorced by a second man (it was understood that she wouldn't stay unmarried). Jesus, in Matthew, states that there is only one valid reason for divorce: "unchastity" (so the NRSV), so Jesus strengthened the law.

However, it should be noted that Matthew's gospel is the only one which gives this "exception clause." Mark 10:1-12 doesn't make this allowance for divorce, and Luke 16:18 reads as follows:

It seems more likely that the "exception clause" was added to Matthew than that it was removed from the Markan and Lukan versions, though again divorce in and of itself is never expressly forbidden--just divorce and remarriage.

Soul Invictus

Even though the passages provide only one valid reason, I'm trying to better understand the effects of doing so for invalid reasons. Does it impact salvation at all?

John Kesler

Jesus states that there is only one sin which is unforgivable (Matthew 12:31; Mark 3:28; Luke 12:10; Thomas 44), and it isn't divorce or adultery, so presumably one could be forgiven, even if divorcing for "invalid reasons." As to whether it's a sin to begin with, the texts don't say that it is unless one remarrys; then the sin is adultery. I'll mention also that Paul, who ministered to Gentiles, states that divorce is allowable if an unbeliever refuses to stay with a believing spouse (1 Corinthians 7:15).

Atheos

Not to sound too nitpicky but that seems to be a somewhat liberal interpretation of the passage. Saying "Divorce is allowable" could be different from "not under bondage". There is a world of debate over the meaning of "not under bondage". Conservative hardliners will argue that the passage is not carte blanche permission to go marry someone else, simply permission to not be obliged to have sex or live with the one who chooses to leave.

John Kesler

I never said anything about remarriage. And since Paul had already stated his opinion that the "unmarried and widows" should remain unmarried (v:8), it seems likely that this advice would apply to those whose unbelieving spouse left them.