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|  06-29-2011, 08:26 AM | #271 | |||
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			A pretty obvious example of disunity: Hebrew scriptures (ie what Christians call, somewhat condescendingly ,as the "Old Testament") Quote: 
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 This isn't just a matter of interpretation of a cloudy passage, the text is pretty darn clear. | |||
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|  06-29-2011, 08:35 AM | #272 | ||||
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 If not, I cannot address your examples. | ||||
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|  06-29-2011, 08:52 AM | #273 | ||
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 I also understand that when some people use phrases like "understanding the Bible correctly" they usually mean "ignore the plain text meaning, agree with my round-about interpretation that usually requires a liberal amount of writing my own meanings in between the lines". But that aside, how do you reconcile the very plain passages I have cited with the fact that the NT disagrees with them? | ||
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|  06-29-2011, 09:15 AM | #274 | |||
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|  06-29-2011, 09:53 AM | #275 | ||||
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 the meaning of the older revelation in the OT being fully and correctly understood in the light of the newer revelation of the NT? For example, does the NT doctrine of hell, which reveals there is no annihilation of the spirit, show the Biblical "contradiction" between hell and annihilation to be false? I cannot address your questions apart from that principle, and in your own terms. Do you accept the principle? | ||||
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|  06-29-2011, 09:57 AM | #276 | ||||
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|  06-29-2011, 10:06 AM | #277 | |||
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 I could grant that there could be ongoing revelation. The examples I am interested in are when later revelations directly contradict earlier revelation. The contradictions shouldn't be if there was a master author who had planned the whole text ahead of time, only to reveal it piecemeal like the arc of a TV or movie series. But that isn't what we have. We have an anthology which has pretty specific history and detail regarding the Jewish Law, then much later we have (primarily) a single charismatic guy, Paul, which says "all that doesn't matter, even though it said it was permanent, because Jesus took care of all of it". It doesn't fit the verbiage of the OT... | |||
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|  06-29-2011, 10:36 AM | #278 | 
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			Simon, it occurs to me that you have presented a couple of hypotheses in this thread.  One, that that the Bible has basic Logical Consistency (posted here).  The second one, that the Bible is unified (posted here). The interesting thing is that it seems that you haven't looked for passages that would falsify these two assertions. It seems you've only looked for passages that would confirm them. When I (and many others) have presented passages that would directly challenge these two hypotheses, you have done a lot of energetic down-playing of those examples. But have you actually considered the objections? Have you acknowledged and challenged your own assumptions*? *anticipating pointing the same accusation back at me, I acknowledge that at one time I did believe that the Bible was basically unified and logically coherent. I was a very dedicated, baptized evangelical who spent hours each week in personal and group Bible study. Once I realized that I didn't apply the same sort of rigorous scrutiny towards my faith (at that time) as I did in my job (as a development engineer) or towards other belief systems, I realized that I had been succumbing to confirmation bias in a big way without even realizing it. | 
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|  06-29-2011, 04:19 PM | #279 | ||||||||||||||||||||
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 The generations of Israel are still going on, and "forever" has not ever ended. Now simon tell me your interpretation of the NT that does not contradict these verses. . | ||||||||||||||||||||
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|  06-29-2011, 04:45 PM | #280 | |
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 This so called 'doctrine' is the theological invention of a sick minded, superstitious religion. | |
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