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12-17-2004, 08:31 AM | #1 | |
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Tacitus on Christians a suggestion
There has been previous debates on this forum about the authenticity of the passage in Book 15 of the Annals of Tacitus referring to Nero persecuting Christians in the aftermath of the Fire of Rome.
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If it was meant to be really pro-Christian then it would a/ lack the reference to 'hatred against mankind' which is an allegation similar to that used by Tacitus and others against the Jews as being a narrow exclusive sect, something which Christians from the late 2nd century on are keen to disavow as part of their attempt to distinguish themselves from Judaism. b/ have some reference to the Christians obstinacy in persisting in their foolish superstition despite offers of clemency if they renounced this nonsense (read bravery in persisting with the truth despite bribes and threats). c/ avoid inventing the idea that persecution of Christians started because they were convicted of being a terrorist group who burnt down cities. IF the absence of reference to this passage in Tacitus before Constantine requires explanation, then the reluctance to spread the idea that Christians had been convicted of terrorism would provide quite a good explanation. The problem with point c/ however is that not only is it IMO highly unlikely that Christians would invent the idea of Nero blaming them for starting the fire of Rome, it is also IMO unlikely to be historically true. There is no hint in Suetonius or Cassius Dio of anyone except Nero being suspected of the fire, it is IMO most unlikely that the Christians were actually guilty, there does not seem to have been conclusive evidence that the fire was a result of arson at all, and whether or not Nero was actually to blame it would have been most unwise to openly agree with the rumour that the fire was arson but attempt to avoid being blamed himself by accusing some entirely innocent unpopular minority group of being to blame. (An official position that the fire was not proven to be arson would be quite incompatible with executing Christians for starting the fire, while accepting that it was certainly arson would tend to encourage not discourage the suspicions against Nero himself.) If then Christians were not really accused of arson what can we make of the passage ? Those with a very high view of the accuracy and objectivity of Tacitus will regard the above as evidence against authenticity, however, if we examine the passage carefully we can IMO see a historically plausible earlier account which Tacitus could have slightly modified to produce the final text. The whole passage is part of an account of measures taken to propitiate the gods after the fire, in this context it is entirely plausible that it would have been claimed that the gods had caused or permitted the fire as a sign of their displeasure at the toleration within Rome itself of illegitimate groups such as the Christians. There are clear parallels with later episodes of persecution within the Empire. What I am suggesting is that Tacitus rewrote records of Nero persecuting Christians as an act of pious propitiation of the Roman gods, in which Christians were blamed as responsible for the fire not in the sense of being arsonists but in the sense of bringing the gods anger upon Rome. By rewriting the account he is able to be deeply hostile to the Christians without being sympathetic to Nero whom he also loathed. Despite the Christians deserving harsh treatment Nero's motives are presented as so illegitimate as to avoid any risk of putting the persecution among Nero's good deeds the way Suetonius did. Presenting the episode so as to express disgust both at non-Roman superstitions and at Nero himself is so rhetorically effective in terms of Tacitus's agenda that it might well justify presenting things this way. (Some suggestions about the passage as an interpolation have only the part about Christ as inauthentic. Although I think the whole passage is by Tacitus the above argument is only relevant to those who regard the whole account about Christians as inauthentic.) Andrew Criddle |
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12-17-2004, 10:35 AM | #2 | |
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This is likely to be more of an interpolation:
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12-17-2004, 03:24 PM | #3 | |
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12-17-2004, 03:38 PM | #4 |
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Good catch, Vorkosigan, although we still can't completely rule out that he did contradicts himself instead of an interpolation.
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12-18-2004, 08:56 AM | #5 | ||
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(In any case the passage in Agricola which is a highly rhetorical attempt to show how Domitian was even worse than Nero is IMO dubious as history) Quote:
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12-20-2004, 01:10 AM | #6 | |
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Zindler notes:
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Criddle: Even Nero turned his eyes away, and did not gaze upon the atrocities which he ordered; Williamson:Even Nero used to avert his eyes, and, though he ordered abominations, forebore to witness them. With the second it looks more like a habit. Michael |
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12-20-2004, 01:43 AM | #7 |
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Note this from the Carotta thread: Claim that "chrestiani" were real estate speculators, not Christians. I don't have the linguistic background to evaluate it.
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12-20-2004, 02:05 AM | #8 |
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On humani generis, the Elder Pliny, has a 7:2 ratio towards the normal usage of the genitive, compared to Tacitus's 6:1. Looks like Tacitus was just following normal usage most of the time which is the point of an inflected language - you can switch word order but certain orders are more conventional than others.
Williamson has probably the better translation for the imperfect. What is the Latin? Best wishes Bede Bede's Library - faith and reason |
12-20-2004, 01:45 PM | #9 | |
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Although I have to go to work now, I'll be on later tonight or tomorrow with a full translation. |
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12-22-2004, 10:31 AM | #10 | |
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In case anyone wants the Latin of the passage in Agricola about Nero turning away here it is http://thelatinlibrary.com/tacitus/tac.agri.shtml
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(This may be my last post till the New Year I'm away from my computer on holiday.) |
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