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Old 08-07-2008, 03:24 AM   #11
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Originally Posted by gurugeorge View Post
It's a toss up whether this query should go here or in NARPS, but I guess there are more actual scholars here and some who have deep linguistic knowledge, so I thought it might be best here.

Is there any connection (via ancient Indo-European common ancestor languages, presumably?) between the Greek Pleroma (fullness) and the Sansrkit Purnam (full)?

I ask because if one takes seriously a certain degree of influence (via Pythagoras, Apollonius of Tyana and others who are reputed to have visited India) from Indian philosopy on Western philosophy, this might be a key place where that influence shows.

An interesting question might be, what are the first known usages of "Pleroma" in connection with philosophy and/or mysticism and/or religion, and by whom?
Assuming I did the TLG search correctly, the first attested use of the noun πλήρωμα occurs in Euripides. He uses it in Cyclops, Medea, Troiades, and Ion. The verb πληρόω probably has earlier attestation.
Fantastic Jeffrey, thank you very much!
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Old 08-07-2008, 04:16 AM   #12
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It doesn't mean that "Purnam" is the only word that could have been used, or that Purnam somehow has a very dense meaning as a result.
Again, I'd disagree with this Prem. If you check out the traditional stuff, the way the Advaita Vedanta teaching is given orally now (even check the link to the Dayananda lecture above), every single word is pored over exhaustively for etymology and connotations - some of Swami Dayandanda's oral teaching can easily take 15 minutes or so over the meaning of just one word, with a teaching that takes a couple of hours covering only one verse in one of the Upanishads, for instance.

Of course we can't know for sure whether this is how these teachings were always given, or indeed meant, right back through history to the origins of these teachings, but it seems likely that there is an unbroken lineage at very least back to Shankara in which the teachings are given that way, and it's unlikely that a way of teaching used by Shankara arose in a vacuum.

This way of exhaustively analysing words seems to be common in extremely hardcore religious/mystical schools- the Zohar immediately springs to mind. Hermeticism was probably along the same lines too, and Pythagoreanism.

So I don't think it was just randomness or poetry - mystical texts in general - Sutras, Agamas, Tantras, etc., and indeed their Western equivalents (such as the "Holy Books" of Aleister Crowley, for example), are incredibly dense and absolutely nothing is thrown off at random or merely for the sake of mellifluousness. As with good cooking and multi-layered flavours, multi-layered meaning is part of the whole mystical game - it's as if the text is meant to hit you as a broadside with a whole bunch of stacked layers of meaning, but unlike with cooking and stacked flavours, you can't really get the broadside effect until you've analysed each layer.
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Old 08-07-2008, 07:13 AM   #13
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http://vedabase.net/p/purnam
Maybe it is my Hindi bias - I learned Sanskrit only accessorily though I memorized a lot of Sanskrit verses as a child. In Hindi, poorna is not a very "big" word.
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