Space Chef

Basing this assumption on a great article at jackinworld.com (http://www.jackinworld.com/library/articles/onan.html) about Onan:

Is the condemnation of homosexuality (specifically Leviticus) in the OT about the survival of the Israelites?

This only makes sense if you've read the article, so...


done reading? Okay, what do you think? Does this assumption make sense? Is it supported by other verses? Any historians agree?

Doctor X

Should the "Search" function ever work reliably, you may find the arguments I posted from an article in the Journal of Biblical Literature which argued rather persuassively that Leviticus does not condemn homosexuality--it forbids a position--"better to give . . . than receive." This is congruent with other conceptions of homosexuality from the period and later.

--J.D.