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07-20-2012, 09:39 AM | #1 | ||
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Revisiting the Philippians Hymn as a Mythicist Smoking Gun
I don't know how many here are following my Response to Ehrman series on the Vridar blog, but we have just posted an important installment in the series on the question of whether the earliest Christians regarded Jesus as God or a part of God.
A couple of weeks ago I enquired here if anyone could remember a past thread about the Philippians hymn. I was not able to locate it, but I did find another one from 2007 which stirred up quite a storm, involving Ben C. Smith, TedM and (of course) the indefatigable GakuseiDon. One of the questions in the debate centered on the line from the Philippians hymn about "the name above every name" and whether it referred to "Jesus" or "Lord". I believe that in my latest consideration of the hymn, this hymn is revealed to be a true smoking gun, demonstrating a virtually incontestible case for mythicism, at least for the epistolary side of things. Perhaps it can be put to the test here, with our peerless defenders of an HJ. Here are a couple of excerpts from Installment #27 on Vridar (The link brings you to partway in. If you want to read from the beginning just scroll back.) The first line, verse 5, is not part of the hymn, but by Paul, and cannot be taken as already bestowing the name "Christ Jesus" on the figure introduced in verse 6 (the translation, by the way, is the one supplied by Ehrman himself): Quote:
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Earl Doherty |
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07-20-2012, 09:52 AM | #2 |
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no one doubts mythology was built around jesus the man.
As a matter of fact the roman text we have are almost all myth. I peronally think you are overthinking the hymn |
07-20-2012, 10:00 AM | #3 | ||||
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these are what I find important, mortal man made into a deity.
and then also turning a jewish slave into a deity Quote:
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07-20-2012, 11:43 AM | #4 |
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07-20-2012, 12:07 PM | #5 |
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Slimming the Pantheon
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07-20-2012, 01:07 PM | #6 |
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I'm a little confused at this Earl.
So, isn't it true that "Jesus" is simply our translated name (as a result of a problem between Greek/Latin etc? And wouldn't that actual name listed have meant to be Yeshua (Joshua)? And isn't that known to have been a fairly common name? Why would they think that God named this mythical person a common name? Is your assertion that there was no "Joshua" before that, or simply that there was no physical manifestation of this particular Joshua person? :huh: |
07-20-2012, 02:12 PM | #7 | |
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I am thinking, however i'm not requiring the use of imagination. I would love to see where your coming from, I cant tell why your using pauls perception when trying to describe what a wide and different movement that was going in many directions, for how divine they thought jesus to be. Pauls jesus was very divine and almost all mythology |
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07-20-2012, 02:36 PM | #8 |
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You're overanalyzing this, Earl.
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07-20-2012, 03:07 PM | #9 |
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Here is the Phil 2 passage (slightly edited):
Therefore also God highly exalted him,Compare with the following, replacing Jesus with "Augustus": Therefore the Senate highly exalted him (Augustus)Does that work? The knees bow at the name of Augustus, because he has been declared "Caesar". Similarly, the knees bow at the name of Jesus, because he was been declared "Lord". I agree with the others, Earl. You're over-analyzing this. |
07-20-2012, 03:21 PM | #10 | |
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Now, let us Replace Augustus with Jupiter. Therefore the Senate highly exalted him (Jupiter) |
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