Larsguy47

Josephus mentions an eclipse that occurred the very night two rabbis were burned at the stake. This suggests that the executions occurred at night. Was this the standard custom?

Apparently so, because of March 15:25 which notes that Jesus was impaled at the "third hour", which is 9 o'clock, but making no special indication as to whether this is 9 p.m. or 9 a.m. Lacking that distinction one would assume it was understood which "third hour" was in question. If night-time impalements were actually the custom then there would be no need to stipulate whether this was night or day.


MARK 15:25 "It was now the third hour, and they impaled him."

But how do we know for sure it was the 9th hour of the night that Jesus was impaled? The answer is because two events occurred at noon in relation to Jesus' impalement and trial. Hi trial occurred at noon, and after he was impaled it became dark for three hours before his death at 3:00 p.m. This obviously took place on two separate days, with obviously, the trial occurring before his impalement.

Thus it was either at 9:00 p.m. or a.m. that Jesus was impaled. The more obvious and logical is the first 9 o'clock after the trial which would have been 9:00 p.m. Of course, as noted, it seems that night-time executions were standard. The fact that no further explanation is provided by Mark regarding the impalement, again, also suggests the custom of the impalements at night.

Jesus and the two evildoers were expected to be impaled for close to at least a day before they would be taken down. The sabbath was the following day beginning at sunset. Thus obviously they would not wait until the next morning at 9 a.m. to impale the prisoners who would be taken down less than 9 hours later. But 21 hours would be enough time for death to take place and if not their legs were broken causing them to asphyxiate.

9:00 p.m. was a time available to most persons to observe since they would not be working likely and the Jewish day began at nightfall, thus when the impalements followed a sabbath day, the earliest time would have been after sundown/nightfall.

LG47

Weltall

Impalement and crucifixion are two different methods of execution. One involves being nailed to or tied to a piece of wood, the other involves being skewered with said piece of wood. Plus, the Romans didn't take down crucifixion victims, they left them there to rot as a warning.

Larsguy47

Apparently in Jewish regions the Jews removed bodies for the sabbath.

LG47

3DJay

What the...? Again, not reading your Bible?

The sabbath was the day after the impalements, not the day before.

Early morning, day of preparation for sabbath passover.

noon? Or, midnight?

Ninth hour? What the...? That'd be 3am, according to you. And, what would be the big deal about it being dark at 12am? Oh...I guess that it only just got dark and only lasted "until 3am" would be strange.

Looky there, Joseph of Arimathea went to Pilate "as evening approached", to ask for the body...that same Preparation Day.

Your interpretation of the Bible is amazing Lars. Never seen anything like it.


Peace

3DJay

I'm disappointed Lars. I was hoping to hear that Mark's 6th hour comment is supposed to subtracted from his 9th hour comment and is just a secret code leading back to the 3rd hour, and that Jesus' body hung for a year after, when Joseph finally came and asked for the remains, on the next year's preparation day...or some such nonsense.

Does your silence mean you were wrong?


Peace

Weltall

Newsflash: They weren't the ones in charge. Does the word 'occupation' mean anything to you?

3DJay

John 19
13 When Pilate heard this, he brought Jesus out and sat down on the judge's seat at a place known as the Stone Pavement (which in Aramaic is Gabbatha). 14 It was the day of Preparation of Passover Week, about the sixth hour.
"Here is your king," Pilate said to the Jews.

15 But they shouted, "Take him away! Take him away! Crucify him!"
"Shall I crucify your king?" Pilate asked.
"We have no king but Caesar," the chief priests answered.

16 Finally Pilate handed him over to them to be crucified.

28 Later, knowing that all was now completed, and so that the Scripture would be fulfilled, Jesus said, "I am thirsty." 29 A jar of wine vinegar was there, so they soaked a sponge in it, put the sponge on a stalk of the hyssop plant, and lifted it to Jesus' lips. 30 When he had received the drink, Jesus said, "It is finished." With that, he bowed his head and gave up his spirit.
31 Now it was the day of Preparation, and the next day was to be a special Sabbath. Because the Jews did not want the bodies left on the crosses during the Sabbath, they asked Pilate to have the legs broken and the bodies taken down.

38 Later, Joseph of Arimathea asked Pilate for the body of Jesus. Now Joseph was a disciple of Jesus, but secretly because he feared the Jews. With Pilate's permission, he came and took the body away. 39 He was accompanied by Nicodemus, the man who earlier had visited Jesus at night. Nicodemus brought a mixture of myrrh and aloes, about seventy-five pounds.[d] 40 Taking Jesus' body, the two of them wrapped it, with the spices, in strips of linen. This was in accordance with Jewish burial customs. 41 At the place where Jesus was crucified, there was a garden, and in the garden a new tomb, in which no one had ever been laid. 42 Because it was the Jewish day of Preparation and since the tomb was nearby, they laid Jesus there.


Bahaha, thanks for the laugh, Lars! :rolling:


Peace

Dave Reed

Hey give him a break. If I was getting ready to rule
the world, I'd also have a lot on my mind. Lars, just
pull out the Marlboro, lite up and INHALE, even if it
is unhealthy. You'll think more clearly.

Larsguy47

John 19:14 is mistranslated here. When "de" is used in front of the time of the day it means "just before". For all instances referring to preparation in connection with Jesus' burial "de" is not used in front of it, but just for John 19:14. Comparison texts show the "selective use" of "de" to add a negative slant to the time of day, meaning "just before". Thus John 19:14 by saying it was "but (de) preparation for passover" should be translated: "It was just before preparation for passover." Passover had two special sabbaths days, the 15th and the 21st and thus two "preparation for passover" days, the 14th and the 20th. Since it cannot be the 14th since it was already the 15th when Jesus got arrested, this must be a reference to the 20th and the day before that is the 19th.

Note that his trial was at noon. The gospels indicate that he was impaled at the third hour. We know he was impaled after the trial, right? So the first "third hour" after noontime (sixth hour) is 9:00 p.m. The next day, at noon is when it became dark for three hours. You can't have Jesus on the cross having been there for a while and it getting dark at the sixth hour, and his trial isn't even over yet when Pilate first sits down to judge Jesus. There must be two days involved. Lack of clear understanding of the subtle use of "de" to indicate "just before" makes it seem Jesus' trial was the same day at noon when it got dark. But it wasn't. The trial was the day before preparation, which was Nisan 19th, it got dark at noon the next day, on preparation, the 20th, which is the day Jesus died.

LG47

Larsguy47

Yeah! Thanks. It's ROUGH! But I'm clear about the chronology for the death of Christ in the 1st Century. Fortunately, I have that worked out and memorized.


LG47