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Old 01-08-2006, 09:09 PM   #1
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Default Quick question about the NT

Friend of mine wants to know - are there any NT passages where Jesus allows for, in some way or another, the killing of others?
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Old 01-08-2006, 10:07 PM   #2
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But those mine enemies, which would not that I should reign over them, bring hither, and slay [them] before me.
(Lk. 19:27)
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Old 01-09-2006, 04:28 AM   #3
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That's part of a parable - what's the usual interpretation of it? It's not immediately clear that Jesus is in some way endorsing killing.
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Old 01-09-2006, 04:36 AM   #4
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What do you think the admonition to take up his cross means?
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Old 01-09-2006, 05:09 AM   #5
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I don't really know - I have almost no familiarity with either the old or new testament.
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Old 01-09-2006, 05:24 AM   #6
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How about:

Quote:
Matthew 10
34 Think not that I am come to send peace on earth: I came not to send peace, but a sword.

35 For I am come to set a man at variance against his father, and the daughter against her mother, and the daughter in law against her mother in law.
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Old 01-09-2006, 08:48 AM   #7
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Quote:
Originally Posted by EnterTheBowser
That's part of a parable - what's the usual interpretation of it?
The nobleman giving the order represents Jesus at the End Times. Most Christians interpret this to mean that it will get pretty ugly for unbelievers on Judgment Day though some do try to squirm out of the apparent implication of ordered executions. That Jesus simply leaves after telling the story without explaining that the analogy should be understood to stop short of the command does not help their case one bit.
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Old 01-09-2006, 09:12 AM   #8
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Quote:
Originally Posted by EnterTheBowser
That's part of a parable - what's the usual interpretation of it? It's not immediately clear that Jesus is in some way endorsing killing.
Many parables have gone through several stages of editing, and although they go back to Jesus, they do not do so in their present form.
Matthew has a very similar parable in chapter 25: 14-30. The form of the parable in Luke may owe something to a historical incident recorded in Josephus Antiquities XVII, xi, 1, where Archelaus journeys to Jerusalem to receive his kingdom and a delegationof Jews petition against him. The reference in verse 27 to the slaying of the enemies may be a veiled refrence to the destruction of the Jewish state, which would date the final redaction of this parable to after 70AD, and therefore not from Jesus himself.
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Old 01-09-2006, 10:05 AM   #9
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Quote:
Originally Posted by EnterTheBowser
That's part of a parable - what's the usual interpretation of it? It's not immediately clear that Jesus is in some way endorsing killing.
The usual interpretation in evangelical Christian circles is that this is a specific prediction of a future command of Jesus concerning some enemies.

Here is another passage:

"You have heard that it was said to the people long ago, ‘Do not murder, and anyone who murders will be subject to judgment.’ But I tell you that anyone who is angry with his brother will be subject to judgment." (Mt. 5:21-22)

And the judgment in this case would be referring to a penalty of death (Gen. 9:6; Ex. 21:14)...

Regards,
Lee
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Old 01-09-2006, 10:46 AM   #10
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Luke 14:26: If anyone comes to me and does not hate his father and mother, his wife and children, his brothers and sisters—yes, even his own life—he cannot be my disciple.

Not an outright exhortation to killing, but a pretty nasty sentiment nevertheless.
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