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Old 02-06-2012, 09:38 PM   #31
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Barre, I look forward to your reply on this.

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Barre, in the Clementine Homilies there is a reference to "James who is called Brother of the Lord,"
Also note 1Corinthians 9 and 15 for the use of the term "brethren"
Your comments are meaty and relevant. Allow me to break the discussion down into smaller pieces. My first comment is:

I don't grasp the import of what you are maintaining with your mention of the phrase in question occuring in the Clementine Homilies and in Corinthians. Are you addressing the question as to how the phrase could be understood figuratively?

I like to issue a challenge to produce a translation of the phrase in a way that best captures its nuance. "James, the ? of the Lord." Even it is possbile to explain the text, one would still have to show why this interpretation is superior to the much simpler and non-problematic thesis that the term was used literarlly (as it has always been widely taken to mean.)

So I think it is more than highly likely that the literal interpretation of adolphos is Paul's intended meaning.

That being so, it appears that a historical James had indeed a historical brother Jesus who was also called "the Lord." Gal 1:19 strongly supports the proposal that Paul knew Jesus to be a literal brother of James, thereby offering solid support of the existence of a historical Jesus.
It is NOT logical to assume that the Canonised Pauline writings are Heretical.

This is so basic.

It is you have the enormous burden to show that the Pauline writings were known to be Heretical and was Canonised with the very same Heresy the Church condemned and also Identified the Heretics.

It is quite absurd and completely contradictory to argue that the Pauline Jesus was KNOWN to be human with a human father while at the same time arguing that the Pauline writings were Interpolated and manipulated to be in conformity with the teachings of the Church.

You very well know that NOT even the authors of the Jesus story and Acts, if it is even assumed they all wrote After Galatians, ever stated that Jesus had a brother called James the Apostle.

Even Church writers state that Jesus Christ had NO human brother called James the Apostle and also did claim that Galatians 1.19 is about James the Son of Alphaeus. See "De Viris Illustribus and the fragments of Papias.

You have exposed that the Galatians 1.19 is NOT credible. Apologetic sources Contradict your claim that NT Jesus had a human brother.

Now, why do you assume that statements in the Pauline writings are credible?

When did Paul write Galatians?
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Old 02-06-2012, 09:59 PM   #32
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Barre, doesn't context mean at least as much as the assumption about a simple meaning of the word brother? That was my point.
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Old 02-06-2012, 11:57 PM   #33
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I do not think that I am presupposing the ideas that you suggest. I see them as arguments and conclusions based upon some things in written Galations.
Then let's see the arguments. In detail. Show us how, from some statement or statements in Galatians, you infer Jesus of Nazareth's existence without using any premises that presuppose a historical Jesus of Nazareth.
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Old 02-07-2012, 08:33 AM   #34
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I do not think that I am presupposing the ideas that you suggest. I see them as arguments and conclusions based upon some things in written Galations.
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Then let's see the arguments. In detail. Show us how, from some statement or statements in Galatians, you infer Jesus of Nazareth's existence without using any premises that presuppose a historical Jesus of Nazareth.
The argument for an historical Jesus of Nazareth based on Galatians is just as horribly weak as the argument that the Pauline letter to the Galatians was written before the Fall of the Temple and is authentic---all are based on Presuppositions with ZERO non-apologetic corroboration from antiquity.

Just like No Canonised source corroborates Galatians 1.19 likewise NO Canonised source corroborates that Paul wrote letters to any Church or to the Galatians--Not even Acts of the Apostles.
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Old 02-08-2012, 04:11 PM   #35
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For what it's worth, lamah sabachthani does not appear to be aramaic. It appears to be misunderstood Hebrew.

לָמָ֣ה עֲזַבְתָּ֑נִי is pronounced lā·māh ‘ă·zaḇ·tā·nî in Hebrew. (Strong's H4100 & H5800)

But a sign of going insane on the cross? I don't buy it.
I see the plot of gMark to end in this way. Jesus first doubted his god when he quoted the prayer of Psalm 22:1: "My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?" The alleged answer that he thought he received was something like:

"I have forsaken you because you are not the Messiah." Hence, his cry of agony as Jesus' last action just prior to dying.

Note that I am not here arguing that this plot development is historical, only that it was the view that gMark presented.
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Old 02-08-2012, 04:15 PM   #36
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For what it's worth, lamah sabachthani does not appear to be aramaic. It appears to be misunderstood Hebrew.

לָמָ֣ה עֲזַבְתָּ֑נִי is pronounced lā·māh ‘ă·zaḇ·tā·nî in Hebrew. (Strong's H4100 & H5800)

But a sign of going insane on the cross? I don't buy it.
I see the plot of gMark to end in this way. Jesus first doubted his god when he quoted the prayer of Psalm 22:1: "My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?" The alleged answer that he thought he received was something like:

"I have forsaken you because you are not the Messiah." Hence, his cry of agony as Jesus' last action just prior to dying.

Note that I am not here arguing that this plot development is historical, only that it was the view that gMark presented.
Or, "If I don't forsake you (me), you (I) won't be the Messiah."
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Old 02-08-2012, 04:18 PM   #37
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Default Paul and the humanity of Jesus

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...I do not think that I am presupposing the ideas that you suggest. I see them as arguments and conclusions based upon some things in written Galations.

You MUST be pre-supposing because in Galatians it is Specifically stated that the Pauline Jesus was NOT a man and that the Pauline writer did NOT get his gospel from a human being.

See Galatians 1.

And further, in the same letter, Paul wrote NOT one thing about a single miracle of Jesus or even regretted that he Never saw Jesus but was DELIGHTED and Extremely happy to say that Jesus was raised from the dead.

You chose the very letter that expose your ideas as presuppositions.

In Galatians 1, the Pauline Jesus was NOT regarded as Flesh and Blood.

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..But when it pleased God ........ To reveal his Son in me, that I might preach him among the heathen; immediately I conferred not with flesh and blood...
The Galatians writer did NOT need any human being to tell him about Jesus.
Agreed. Paul zealously insisted that his gospel was the result of a private, direct revelation. Still, he wrote that Jesus was "born of a woman" and was according to the flesh, "a descendant of Daivd."
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Old 02-08-2012, 04:40 PM   #38
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Well, duh....isn't every human born of a woman! What's novel about that if it refers to a historical Jesus! And why say woman instead of....Mary?
And even if Jesus we're considered a spiritual being if he was some kind of messianic being he'd still be a metaphysical descendant of David.
But you know what? Woman could also refer to a celestial woman concept since the Greek word does not refer to birth per se. Earl Doherty discusses this.
Plus it is also logical that seed of David was a marginal gloss that was included by some scribe. Who knows how many times the letters were handled?
And Paul was only zealous about his revelation in Galatians and not in the other epistles.
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Old 02-08-2012, 04:52 PM   #39
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Well, duh....isn't every human born of a woman!
Humans, yes, deities, no.

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Paul was only zealous about his revelation in Galatians and not in the other epistles.
But only the Galatians were foolish, accepting circumcision and observing religious occasions.
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Old 02-09-2012, 02:38 PM   #40
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Well, duh....isn't every human born of a woman!
Humans, yes, deities, no.
So, Paul was trying to prove that Jesus was no deity?
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