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10-31-2006, 04:32 AM | #1 |
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What are the best guesses on WHERE the gospels come from?
What is the best info on what part of the globe the gospels were written in?
I would assume that none of them were written anywhere near Judea, but are there ideas as to what cities, or regions they were written in? |
10-31-2006, 07:24 AM | #2 |
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I know that it has been suggested that the author of Mark lived in the Roman world, if not Rome itself. He certainly was not familiar with the Judean geography and if Papias was to be believed, he was a young Hellenic Jewish disciple of Peter.
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10-31-2006, 10:58 AM | #3 |
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It may be possible to have originated in Judea, but was re-worked possibly in Rome. The major factor for me is the destruction of the Temple, perhaps some Jew developed the concept of a God-sacrifice, which was rejected and then the Romans adopted the new God-man.
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10-31-2006, 11:38 AM | #4 | |
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Early Christian Writings
Quote:
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10-31-2006, 12:27 PM | #5 |
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It's all Seneca's fault!! He wrote a passion play in Rome!
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10-31-2006, 08:23 PM | #6 | |
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The fact that there were a number of Latin idioms translated into Greek indicates that we are dealing with someone well aware of Latin, rather than a camp groupie. Mk 15:15 "Pilate willing to content the people" should read "Pilate willing to do/make many/sufficient the people" and doesn't make sense in Greek, but knowing that the Latin "satis facere" lies behind the Greek you can suddenly understand the text. Similarly in 2:23 the disciples "did/made way" another Latin based idiom "iter facere". Also a number of explanations are given in Mk prefixed by o estin, a literal translation of the Latin hoc est, "that is", for example 12:42, "two leptas, that is a kodrantes (a Roman coin)", and the explanation is for the benefit of a Roman, not a Judean. Denarii are the coins of reference for the food needed for the feeding of the 5000. The explanation for the palace in 15:16 is o estin praitwrion, "that is praetorium", an explanation again for the benefit of a Roman, not a Judean. Blaming the Latinisms in Mark on the Roman occupation simply doesn't account for the evidence. We need an audience oriented towards Latin. That strongly supports the Rome thesis. spin |
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11-01-2006, 12:12 AM | #7 |
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11-01-2006, 01:16 AM | #8 |
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oNe down and three to go.
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11-01-2006, 03:58 AM | #9 | ||
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From Vorkosigan's very interesting website on GMark http://users2.ev1.net/~turton/GMark/...tro.html#place Quote:
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11-01-2006, 06:58 AM | #10 |
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I don't think Papias should be considered a good source for anything. We don't have his word for anything. We have what is alleged to be a quotation from his work, along with zero information that would tell us whether we should trust anything he said.
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