Job

Recently I've been debating with a Christian over whether or not Matthew 16:28 refers to the Transfiguration. He claims that Matt 16:27 and 28 are two seperate prophecies, and that 27 has not been fulfilled while 28 refers to the Transfiguration. I say the two passages are connected and are a failed prophecy, and that saying "some will not taste death" is ridiculous if the Transfiguration was a mere six days away. There was a debate in the debate forum over this particular subject a few months ago, but I can't find it now. Any links to this debate, or info on this subject would be great.

Toto

Is this the debate?

When did Christ say he would return? -- Jon Promnitz vs. Jason Gastrich

rich442

I am fascinated by the number of church-going Christians who write for this forum and claim to be secularists, humanists and/or atheists. Isn't it better to be honest with youselves, Christian warriors?

The two passages are totally unrelated. The first ( ye shall see me in my kingdom) just refers to the death and the scattering of the apostlles. Since the only people who saw the Schekinah were Peter, James and John, only three of the 12, it is wrong to think that Jesus was referring to a real and present kingdom. If he was, we all would not be here. The hallucinations brought on by the "vision" (i.e. Moshe, Elijah, and other prophets


The transfiguration has nothing do with this passage. The theory is actually concerning the presence of the Schekinah (visible presence of G-d) passing itself down on Jesus. As you learned in your Sunday school class last week, Jesus needed to say that he received the Schekinah in order to make people believe he was a god. It rightly belongs on the Torah as it is there today.

Best of luck in your Christian search for life, :angel:
rich442