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Old 04-20-2007, 10:42 PM   #1
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Default Eloihm, Yahweh, God, and Trinity

The common denominator of all historical gods is that they are very powerful agents who operate in the world of humans and in the lives of man. Beyond date, every religion and every theology has its own specifics about their god or gods.

So, "god" is a generic concept, although it may have arisen as the proper name of a specific god. For instance, "god" -- whatever its history may be -- translates the Latin "deus," which is derived from the Greek "zeys" ["of god" = "dios"; etc.) And Zeys happens to be a third-generaration god in the Greek {Hesiod's} genealogy of the gods. (The primordia gods were Sky [masculine] and Earth [feminine], which/who are constitutive of the universe, not external causes of the universe. The universe consists of supernal gods and the field of things which are born and die, which the philosophers will call Physical Reality or Nature. However, there were also subterranean or chthonic gods, responsible for the generation of mortal things: Demeter, Hecate, the chthonic Apollo, etc.)

Among the many gods of the ancient world (during the Neolithic age), there were the Canaanite Elohim, of ancient Arabic origin from which Allah was to spring. The Elohim were the supreme gods, who has ministers and messangers for El (the male god), such as Gabri-El, Micha-El, Satana-El, and the rest of the so-called archangels. They had magic power, as things appeared when they called them forth by their name. They also magically produced Man and made man in their own image: one male and the other female.

The Eloihm theology was inherited by the Hebrews, but they revised it, as they banished the female spouse. So, the "eloihms" [= the Gods] in practice became El [=God], and so is the translation of Genesis, Chapter 1.

One of the most ancient gods in the Levant, was -- in Biblical letters -- Yahweh and often just Yah [or, as vowels were missing from the alphabet], Yoh, or Yeh [as in Yashua/Yeshua, Iesous in the Greek transcription; Jesus in Latin, pronounced as Yesus].

Yahweh is attested in epigraphies of the Middle East apart from and prior to the Genesis, Chapter 2. (Elsewhere I established that Yah was a god of Caucasian populations, and there is evidence for that in the greek language and in the Latin language -- which I will not discuss presently.) It has also be shown by various scholars that a good portion of Biblical Hebrew or Aramaic is analogous to Greek, a most ancient and widespread language. So, we can envision the Hebrews as a hybrid populations of Canaanite and Caucasian origins, that inherited the Arab-like language and a Caucasian language, a God from the Araboid ancestry and a god from their Caucasian ancestry. The Bible does not present any history prior to the formation of the Hebrews who, from Canaan, moved to Egypt, but there is a faint allusion in the commingling of the languages in the tale of the Tower of Babel. (Most contemporary Jews in the West are Caucasoid, not because most of them might have commingled with the Europeans Caucasians, but because they came from Judea, where ther worshipped Yahweh, rather than from Galilee, where they (Jesus included) worshipped El. (Fortunately the Greek Gospel writers quoted his Aramaic words, "Eloi, Eloi,...", rather than Yahweh or its common substitute, Adonai (Lord). "Yahveh" is translated as Lord from the Bible, since not even the Jewish rabbis know the meaning of that (Caucasian) name. ["Yahweh" is equivalent to the Latin "Yove", spelled Jove -- a name based on JUS/JOUS/JOVS = Right/ Rectitude. Yah or Jupiter is the source of rectitude.]

Unlike the Elohim, Ya is a divine artisan, an architect and sculptor, who, living in the age of Agriculture, constructed the two humans equipped with language, with the male generative organ [ since agriculturists exalted the seed as the fecundating power], and with the occupational skills of Cain and Abel: agriculture [new, bad, for the Semites] and shepherding (the god traditional occupation of the Semites].{{ Their enmity goes back to the opposition of the shepherding Canaanites, and the agrarian Caucasians of the Levant. Indeed, Adam and Eve disobeyed their Caucasian lord and were banished from the agricultural garden. The El worshipping Abraham took his Tribe, Israe-El, out of its homeland and moved on to Egypt.}}

Greek Christian theologians professed Jesus the King-Messiah to have been generated by God in the humble Mary. The Greeks texts employ "Theos" (the Greek generic term for God), whether the Bible has Elohim, Yahweh, or "Elohim Yahweh" (the Divine Ya, the God of Moses and the Judeans, not of Abraham, the one and only God that the Jews were commanded by Yah himself to worship).

It was a great problem for the Christian theologians to assert both ONE god, and the divine Jesus in addition to God the Creator. So, John the Evangelist used his imagination and came up with a solution. Before expounding a biography of Jesus, he spoke of God as such: At first was the Logos, and the Logos was god,... and nothing was ever created that was not created through the Logos. And what on earth is the Logos, which is never mentioned in the Bible or the Gospels?

John of Ephesus still had memories of the philosopher, Heraclitus of Ephesus, who spoke of the universe maintaining its order and unity through the Logos (translatable as Cosmic Reason) that inheres in the eternal flux of the universe. In Greek, "logos" means also discourse or word. Well, God created by uttering words. The word of God is personified. Hence, God created the world by means of or through the Logos (a divine personality, not an additional god).
On the other hand, Yawhweh made a statue alive by his divine breath (spirit, in Latin).So, John and others personified the breath of the other Biblical God, and voila`, we have a third personality. God is One and Tri-Une. The Breath is also the Paraclete that Jesus promised to send his apostles, etc.

Now the stage was set to explain the divinity of Jesus: God-the-Creator sent His Logos to be incarnated in a human being. So, Jesus' nature is twofold: he is both a man and the second Person of the Trinity (the Logos), and thus God came to live amongst men in order to atone for the sins of men and to save them.

There could have been an easier arrangement of God's part, but, at any rate, the salvation of man by atonment is not a Gospec doctrine. It is the doctrine invented by Saul of Tarsus (alias St. Paul). On the contrary, the Gospels made it clear that Jesus was the promised messiah to save Israel, not mankind, and that Jesus was the son of the earthly Joseph, in the bloodline of David, wherefore he claimed to be the legitimate king of Israel. So, we have the tale of King Herod trying to kill the baby-king. At any rate, Jesus died by crucifixion as JESUS OF NAZARETH KING OF THE JUDEANS, not even as the messiah of Israel. Where Paul got his idea of salvation, nobody knows, except that it is COHERENT with his policy, after King Jesus' death,
to bring the Jesus mission [of salvation] to the Gentiles, FOR A TIME PERIOD ONLY, that is, to recruit Gentiles (or Roman soldiers) into Judaism, to create a following of Jesus that Jesus never had, and thus achieve the ambitions of King Jesus --the liberation of Israel from the dynasty of the Herods (non-Jewish rulers).
So, it would be logical for Paul and the others to preach universal salvation and thus recuit foreigners. Of course, the events of 70 A.D. ended all the projects of the Jewish Christians, and the Gentile Christians proceeded to establish a religion and a church of their own. (They got recruited, annexed, and fooled.)

In Christian doctrine, Jesus will be the presiding king in the kingdom to come, since the kingdom he preached was never realized on earth. Jesus' mission failed, and so did his prophesy that the end of the world was to occur within one generation. The Jews did not believe in him and turned out to be right.
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Old 04-20-2007, 11:29 PM   #2
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Originally Posted by Amedeo View Post
Among the many gods of the ancient world (during the Neolithic age), there were the Canaanite Elohim, of ancient Arabic origin from which Allah was to spring. The Elohim were the supreme gods, who has ministers and messangers for El (the male god), such as Gabri-El, Micha-El, Satana-El, and the rest of the so-called archangels. They had magic power, as things appeared when they called them forth by their name. They also magically produced Man and made man in their own image: one male and the other female.
Do you have any evidence for this reading? You are aware that elohim can take a singular verb, right?

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One of the most ancient gods in the Levant, was -- in Biblical letters -- Yahweh and often just Yah [or, as vowels were missing from the alphabet], Yoh, or Yeh [as in Yashua/Yeshua, Iesous in the Greek transcription; Jesus in Latin, pronounced as Yesus].
See this and this for a much better treatment.

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So, we can envision the Hebrews as a hybrid populations of Canaanite and Caucasian origins, that inherited the Arab-like language and a Caucasian language, a God from the Araboid ancestry and a god from their Caucasian ancestry.
This is patently, ridiculously false.

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The Bible does not present any history prior to the formation of the Hebrews who, from Canaan, moved to Egypt, but there is a faint allusion in the commingling of the languages in the tale of the Tower of Babel.
No, on the contrary, the Tower of Babel myth explains the diffusion of languages, not the "commingling" of them.

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(Most contemporary Jews in the West are Caucasoid, not because most of them might have commingled with the Europeans Caucasians, but because they came from Judea, where ther worshipped Yahweh, rather than from Galilee, where they (Jesus included) worshipped El.
Wild speculation that is utterly defeated by both modern genetics and the historical record.

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["Yahweh" is equivalent to the Latin "Yove", spelled Jove -- a name based on JUS/JOUS/JOVS = Right/ Rectitude. Yah or Jupiter is the source of rectitude.]
Both are false etymologies. Jove is the anglicized form of the oblique form of Iuppiter, being derived from the latter. It has nothing to do with ius (law, not right or rectitude), and is never found as ious nor ever in the nominative, which is always iuppiter, an Italic form of Dyeus-pitr "day-father", an IE compound. It is totally unrelated in every way from YHWH.
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Old 04-20-2007, 11:40 PM   #3
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Originally Posted by Chris Weimer
Jove is the anglicized form of the oblique form of Iuppiter, being derived from the latter. It has nothing to do with ius (law, not right or rectitude), and is never found as ious nor ever in the nominative, which is always iuppiter, an Italic form of Dyeus-pitr "day-father", an IE compound. It is totally unrelated in every way from YHWH.
Nehemiah Gordon (Karaite with a good Hebrew scholarship background) sees a linkage between jove and 'yahweh', which he sees as a false, corrupted pronounciation of he Tetragram. It is an interesting viewpoint.

Shalom,
Steven
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Old 04-20-2007, 11:48 PM   #4
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Nehemiah Gordon (Karaite with a good Hebrew scholarship background) sees a linkage between jove and 'yahweh', which he sees as a false, corrupted pronounciation of he Tetragram. It is an interesting viewpoint.

Shalom,
Steven
But it's a totally untenable position.
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Old 04-21-2007, 12:25 AM   #5
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But it's a totally untenable position.
Offhand I am not sure if he sees any etymological linkage rather than a pronunciation linkage (similarity) which can have a spiritual component. Is the claim of "untenable" across the board, including pronunciation, or is it made with a focus on etymology ?

Shalom,
Steven
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Old 04-21-2007, 12:32 AM   #6
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Offhand I am not sure if he sees any etymological linkage rather than a pronunciation linkage (similarity) which can have a spiritual component. Is the claim of "untenable" across the board, including pronunciation, or is it made with a focus on etymology ?

Shalom,
Steven
Across the board.

YHWH is either Yahweh (traditional) or Yehwah, but not yowis, yowe (there is a difference, yes), or yowem.

Besides, the nominative or vocative appellation would be Iuppiter, which sounds nothing like any of the hypothetical pronunciations of YHWH.
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Old 04-21-2007, 12:47 AM   #7
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Across the board. YHWH is either Yahweh (traditional) or Yehwah, but not yowis, yowe (there is a difference, yes), or yowem. Besides, the nominative or vocative appellation would be Iuppiter, which sounds nothing like any of the hypothetical pronunciations of YHWH.
Apparently you have a basic disagreement with Nehemiah and some of the b-hebrew folks on the basics .. such as 2 or 3 syllables.

Remember in his theory Nehemiah is not talking about the actual pronunciation of the Tetragram, which is viewed as 3-syllable and much closer to Yehovah. Nehemiah has worked on the Masoretic text and DSS research with Emmanuel Tov so in this area his views have a real scholastic background.

Your two-syllable pronunciation differences are interesting though the issue might be the degree of difference, not absolute identity. And this 'yahweh-jove connection' issue also may be a view that Nehemiah has not taken public when writing on the Tetragram. Others have claimed this connection without the same type of scholarly background.

Shalom,
Steven
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Old 04-21-2007, 12:55 AM   #8
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Three syllables, sorry that I'm not up-to-date on current literature on the pronunciation of the tetragram, would be even further removed than the two syllables of the oblique forms for iuppiter.
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Old 04-21-2007, 01:02 AM   #9
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Three syllables, sorry that I'm not up-to-date on current literature on the pronunciation of the tetragram, would be even further removed than the two syllables of the oblique forms for iuppiter.
Again, this is not about connecting the (3-syllable) tetragram with the latin deity. Rather it is connecting the sound 'yahweh' as a corruption, a false name (a spiritual principality). That such represents a pagan corruption that is analogous to the latin deity (mentioned through the Greek in Acts 14 and 19). And this yahweh corruption is not in any way connected to the Hebrew Bible, and by extension not connected to true Judaism.

These views of 'yahweh' as a corruption are not dependent on the jove connection but they are harmonious with same.

Shalom,
Steven
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Old 04-21-2007, 01:08 AM   #10
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Again, this is not about connecting the (3-syllable) Tetragram with the latin deity. Rather it is connecting the sound 'yahweh' as a corruption, a false name (perhaps a spiritual principality). That such represents a pagan corruption that is analogous to the latin deity and is not in any way connected to the Hebrew Bible.

Shalom,
Steven
You've lost me, Steven. Are we moving into theology again? If so, I'd rather abstain.
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