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Old 12-09-2006, 07:23 PM   #51
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Default Does the Bible clearly oppose slavery?

If the God of the Bible exists, and inspired the writing of the Bible, he did a very poor job regarding many issues, including the issue of slavery. He knew in advance that millions of Christians would misinterpret what the Bible says about slavery, at great cost to society, but chose to do nothing about it. He knew that Christians would conquer the largest colonial empire in history by far under a single religion, but chose to do nothing about it. He knew that women would be subjugated until the 1900's, but chose nothing about it. He knows in advance which rapists will commit rape, but does nothing about it. He knows which hurricanes will kill people, but chooses to do nothing about it. No person who has principles and morals could love such a being. What is the point of praying to an apathetic God?
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Old 12-09-2006, 07:26 PM   #52
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Originally Posted by hatsoff View Post
[The Bible]does, however, instruct men to treat other men with kindness and love, which is usually agreed to preclude enslavement.
It's usually belatedly agreed to preclude enslavement. For more centuries than not, the Bible was used to defend the practice of slavery

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There is a case to be made that the Biblical passages touching on slavery are inappropriate and misleading--qualities not indicative of an inerrant work--but you have yet to show that the Bible supports slavery explicitly or implicitly when taken as a whole.
It may be a bit of an understatement to label explicit biblical commands that slaves are to obey their masters, biblical limits on the severity of slave beatings, and biblical assertions that slaves are property as merely "inappropriate and misleading."
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Old 12-09-2006, 07:59 PM   #53
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I beg to differ. It is talking about kidnapping someone and then selling them off as a slave...
Upon further consideration, I think you are correct on this point (what is being stolen is the freedom of the individual) but you continue to go beyond what the text actually states in claiming this as a general prohibition against buying or selling or just owning humans as forced labor.

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Therefore, we see that it means kidnapping and selling that person off as a slave, period, or forcing them to do labor, period.
Right, there is nothing prohibiting the owning or selling of slaves one has not kidnapped. Period.
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Old 12-09-2006, 08:07 PM   #54
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Upon further consideration, I think you are correct on this point (what is being stolen is the freedom of the individual) but you continue to go beyond what the text actually states in claiming this as a general prohibition against buying or selling or just owning humans as forced labor.

Right, there is nothing prohibiting the owning or selling of slaves one has not kidnapped. Period.
The point is that what slavers truly do. They steal the freedom of people and sell them off as slaves and/or force then to work for the slavers. When the Israelites went to get servants for themselves, they never stole these people's freedom, they paid to have that servant transferred to them, to work for them. This completely shows that enslaving people was not the practice of the Israelites according to God's Law.

Not only this, you must also take into consideration that if the Israelites bought genuine slaves, those that were taken involuntarily and brought onto the market to be sold, then the Israelites would have taken part of violating Exodus 21:16 and Dueteronomy 24:7.

The servants that the Israelites were buying were already genuine indentured servants and they were merely transferring the service of the servant from one party to another, hence, indentured servitude. After six years, they would then be released.
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Old 12-09-2006, 08:12 PM   #55
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Bottom-line; Exodus 21:6 and Deuteronomy 24:7 specifically condemn slavery. Therefore, all those instances that do not fall under what is spoken of in these two passages is "not" slavery, but indentured servitude.
This reasoning is severely flawed: a contradictory Bible could at once condemn slavery and approve of it.

As it turns out, though, this time there is no contradiction. Nothing in the Bible condemns the institution of slavery. Exodus 21:16 condemns kidnapping and making a slave of the victim, not slavery. Nothing here could be construed as prohibiting obtaining slaves by other means, such as conquering a nation and taking the survivors as war booty. Deuteronomy 24:7 prohibits making slaves of other Israelis, but not non-Israelis.

Leviticus 25:44-46 clearly permits slavery, provided that those enslaved are not Israelis:
And as for your male and female slaves whom you may have from the nations that are around you, from them you may buy male and female slaves. Moreover you may buy the children of the strangers who dwell among you, and their families who are with you, which they beget in your land; and they shall become your property. And you may take them as an inheritance for your children after you, to inherit them as a possession; they shall be your permanent slaves. But regarding your brethren, the children of Israel, you shall not rule over one another with rigor.
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Old 12-09-2006, 08:17 PM   #56
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This reasoning is severely flawed: a contradictory Bible could at once condemn slavery and approve of it.

As it turns out, though, this time there is no contradiction. Nothing in the Bible condemns the institution of slavery. Exodus 21:16 condemns kidnapping and making a slave of the victim, not slavery. Nothing here could be construed as prohibiting obtaining slaves by other means, such as conquering a nation and taking the survivors as war booty. Deuteronomy 24:7 prohibits making slaves of other Israelis, but not non-Israelis.

Leviticus 25:44-46 clearly permits slavery, provided that those enslaved are not Israelis:
And as for your male and female slaves whom you may have from the nations that are around you, from them you may buy male and female slaves. Moreover you may buy the children of the strangers who dwell among you, and their families who are with you, which they beget in your land; and they shall become your property. And you may take them as an inheritance for your children after you, to inherit them as a possession; they shall be your permanent slaves. But regarding your brethren, the children of Israel, you shall not rule over one another with rigor.
Read my previous post in this thread and read the rest of my posts concerning the evidence regarding the scriptures you quoted. The institution of slavery is condemned, not indentured servants. Im tired of repeating myself.
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Old 12-09-2006, 08:35 PM   #57
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Default Does the Bible clearly oppose slavery?

Message to Berggy: If the God of the Bible exists, and inspired the writing of the Bible, he did a very poor job regarding many issues, including the issue of slavery. He knew in advance that millions of Christians would misinterpret what the Bible says about slavery, at great cost to society, but chose to do nothing about it. He knew that Christians would conquer the largest colonial empire in history by far under a single religion, but chose to do nothing about it. He knew that women would be subjugated until the 1900's, but chose to do nothing about it. He knows in advance which rapists will commit rape, but chooses to do nothing about it, at least much of the time. He knows which hurricanes will kill people, but chooses to do nothing about it. No person who has principles and morals could love such a being. What is the point of praying to an apathetic God?
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Old 12-09-2006, 08:38 PM   #58
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Your mis-understanding resides within the fact that the Israelites never bought young kids as slaves, in Leviticus 25:45, the Hebrew word for "children" is "ben" and it means a son, like a builder of a family name. It can point to younglings, yes, but it is never the case when concerning contracting servants. I have never seen a case within scripture where you can absolutely prove that a child was lawfully being sold into slavery.
The non-Israelite slave was enslaved for life. I see no arrangement to free children born to him in captivity. There is no need to buy a child as a slave in order to have children who are enslaved. (And BTW I am a native speaker of modern Hebrew and have been reading Tanakh in Hebrew since I was 7, no need to lecture me on simple stuff. I know what I mean.)

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Even more so, when an Israelite bought a female servant, indentured, that is, and he betrothed that servant to his son, then the servant became family and therefore, they would not be a servant any longer - Exodus 21:9. This would also appy in the reverse as well. This would also mean that the children that are born from that union would not be indentured servants, but family.
In some cases. But what if she was married of to a slave? Tough luck for her. And her children. And her husband, faced with the dilemma of choosing to go free and losing his family or staying with his family and losing any chance ever of regaining freedom.

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The reason as to why not is because all the money that the slave would have made in regards to anything that the slave might do would belong to the master, for a master puts a slave to work to benefit the master and his family. This is why it is not so in the Bible. True slaves, with whips at their backs and being dragged around in chains do not have this luxury, nor the right according to their "status".
Sorry, I object to this unjustified distinction between 'true' and not-so-true servitude. They are all servitude. In the ancient world at large there were individual slaves who rose from low status to one that was higher than that of a free commoner via skill, ties and the goodwill of masters. There is no need to prohibit your 'true' servitude for such a situation to arise. There being some wealthy slaves is no indication of the status of the majority of slaves.

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The limitations are specifically as stated. They are not allow to kidnap/steal/take people and make merchandise of them and/or sell them, which constitues the basis for true slavery. They are allowed to go to these people and buy them as servants, which, after six years of service, are released from being a servant as their debt was released and/or fulfilled.
Careful!! You are conflating foreign born and Hebrew slaves here. You are also ignoring a more important source of 'true' slavery - prisoners of war. And the foreign slaves are not released after 6 years or at any time. They are permanent slaves.

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The situation as what your describing, as mentioned in Exodus 21:1-6 is not what your making it out to be. Its only fair that you take what you brought into a situation like this. The Bible explains it perfectly. Just because a servant marries his/her master's children doesnt mean that just because you go free that you take them with you.
No. You are misinterpreting the text. This is not about a slave marrying into the master's family. It is about a male slave marrying a female slave. Because your way makes no sense - why would a freeborn woman not be sent along with her now freed husband? The whole idea of biblical marriage is the transfer of a woman from the responsibility of her father to the responsibility of her husband.
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Old 12-09-2006, 09:09 PM   #59
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Default Does the Bible clearly oppose slavery?

If the Bible is the word of God, it ought to say a lot more about slavery than it does. If I wanted to write book for people to use as a guide to live their lives, I most certainly would not write about slavery like the Bible writers did.
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Old 12-09-2006, 09:13 PM   #60
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However, there is also no cause to believe that the wife and children wouldnt, "on their own accord", leave the master to go with the servant upon the release of his servitude.
If they could, they would.

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The point is simply that just because a servant goes free, doesnt entitle his wife and children to go with him because he just got free. There is a difference.
But the Hebrew law is that either he must abandon them, or he becomes a slave for life; he becomes a chattel, no longer an independent human with what passed for civil rights among the Hebrews. His master can beat him until he dies, and suffer no penalty, as long as it takes him at least three days to die.

Sorry, but no. The policy in question clearly uses the family as a tool to convert people from indentured servitude into full chattel slavery.
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