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Old 08-11-2009, 03:52 AM   #471
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Earlierst copy of Tacitus is from the 9th century that has the first six books and one from later that has books 11 through 17. that nearly 800 years to the first copy.

Earliest copies of Josephus are from 10th century.

Every single word of the NT has much more support than either of these books. We have 1000's of copies of the NT that pre-date these.

If I am wrong about these then please point out any earlier copies that you are aware of.

Don't know anything about Plutarch but I will bet the farm it is something akin to Josephus and Tacitus (which 1/3 of is entirely lost).


~Steve
You asked about 'more support'. You didn't ask about 'having the oldest surviving manuscripts'. They're not the same thing. The fact of greater age, by itself, does not indicate a manuscript's historical reliability.
yes, it actually does. The more copies I have of a document the closer to the time they were written, the more confident I can be in the document's authenticity.

ok, well then describe for me the support you had in mind for Tacitus and Josephus.
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Old 08-11-2009, 03:58 AM   #472
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You asked about 'more support'. You didn't ask about 'having the oldest surviving manuscripts'. They're not the same thing. The fact of greater age, by itself, does not indicate a manuscript's historical reliability.

What reasons are applicable that there is not even a single contemporary document, nor one in Hebrew, of any of the Gospel's claims? Is it a crime of sorts that Europeans never asked for absolute proof and went along with whatever was said, and their beliefs enforced to trust those documents? Can you prove there was a trial in Rome over Jesus - when a decree of heresy was hovering over Judea? :constern01:
Can you prove their was an Exodus? a Moses? an Adam? Is this the same crime or a different crime?
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Old 08-11-2009, 07:06 AM   #473
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The book of Han was put forwarded as a point of fact, you are answering rhetorically.
I don't know squat about that particular book. I'd never heard of it before it popped up in this thread. But it makes no difference. I'd give the same answer in reference any other ancient document. The only way to prove no changes were ever made is to produce the autograph. Without the autograph, there is no way to rule out the possibility that the document was changed in the copying process.

In any particular case, the reasonableness of believing that changes were made is another issue, of course. Sometimes there is good reason to suspect changes and sometimes there is not.
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Old 08-11-2009, 09:57 AM   #474
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The book of Han was put forwarded as a point of fact, you are answering rhetorically.
I don't know squat about that particular book. I'd never heard of it before it popped up in this thread. But it makes no difference. I'd give the same answer in reference any other ancient document. The only way to prove no changes were ever made is to produce the autograph. Without the autograph, there is no way to rule out the possibility that the document was changed in the copying process.

In any particular case, the reasonableness of believing that changes were made is another issue, of course. Sometimes there is good reason to suspect changes and sometimes there is not.
me neither.

The earlier a copy exists and the greater the number of copies, and the greater the geographical disbursement of the copies, the less time and opportunity exists for change. NT is best preserved by far.
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Old 08-11-2009, 10:58 AM   #475
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I don't know squat about that particular book. I'd never heard of it before it popped up in this thread. But it makes no difference. I'd give the same answer in reference any other ancient document. The only way to prove no changes were ever made is to produce the autograph. Without the autograph, there is no way to rule out the possibility that the document was changed in the copying process.

In any particular case, the reasonableness of believing that changes were made is another issue, of course. Sometimes there is good reason to suspect changes and sometimes there is not.
me neither.

The earlier a copy exists and the greater the number of copies, and the greater the geographical disbursement of the copies, the less time and opportunity exists for change. NT is best preserved by far.
No, the NT's 4+th century texts are the best preserved by far. Prior to the institutionalization of Christianity, text were copied by friends. Since Christianity spread among the poor, they usually couldn't pay a professional copyist to copy their works. Many times, the Christians who were doing the copying couldn't even read what they were copying; they were just copying the shapes. This period of early Christianity has the greatest variance among the extant manuscripts.
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Old 08-11-2009, 01:47 PM   #476
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Gday,

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yes, it actually does. The more copies I have of a document the closer to the time they were written, the more confident I can be in the document's authenticity.
We have millions of copies of the Book of Mormon, from very soon after when it was first written.

So, that makes it authentic, according to your argument.


K.
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Old 08-11-2009, 02:00 PM   #477
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Gday,

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yes, it actually does. The more copies I have of a document the closer to the time they were written, the more confident I can be in the document's authenticity.
We have millions of copies of the Book of Mormon, from very soon after when it was first written.

So, that makes it authentic, according to your argument.


K.
yes, it makes it cleasr that those are the words of the author.
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Old 08-11-2009, 02:00 PM   #478
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Gday,

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The earlier a copy exists and the greater the number of copies, and the greater the geographical disbursement of the copies, the less time and opportunity exists for change. NT is best preserved by far.
Pardon?
We have plenty of evidence of CHANGES to the NT :


Mark 16:9-20
The Resurrection Appearances

Most of the earliest witnesses have G.Mark ending at 16:8 - with the empty tomb scene, but no resurrection appearances etc.
Intriguingly, an empty tomb scene was not unknown in other 1st century dramatic writings - e.g. Chariton's novel Chareas and Callirhoe included an empty tomb scene as the climax.

G.Mark ends at 16:8 in the very important early MSS Vaticanus and Sinaiticus, and also in others such as : Latin Codex Bobiensis, the Sinaitic Syriac manuscript, and the two oldest Georgian translations and many Armenian manuscripts.

In later versions however, there are several DIFFERENT endings to G.Mark after 16:8 -
* the longer ending (16:9-20 in many Bibles)
* the shorter ending (also found in some study bibles)
* another minor variant of a few verses

In other words -
there are at least FOUR different ways that G.Mark ends.

(Many modern Bibles now indicate this with brackets or a marginal note - go check yours.)

Origen and Clement of Alexandria (early 3rd C.) and Victor of Antioch quote and discuss G.Mark WITHOUT mentioning the appendix. Eusebius (early 4th C.) mentions that most MSS do not have the appendix. Jerome also specifically notes the passage can not be found in most Greek MSS of his time (4th C.) This means Eusebius and Jerome KNEW of the appendix, but noted that it was NOT part of the Bible at that time.

Thus, this is clear and present evidence that the post-resurrection stories were NOT original, but added later, around the 4th-5th century or so.

This helps to explain why the stories in G.Luke and G.Matthew and G.John are so wildly different - they did not have G.Mark to follow, so each made-up a different story. (Scholars agree G.Luke and G.Matt were largely copied from G.Mark.)

The events on Easter Sunday, as described in the four Gospels can NOT be reconciled. It is NOT possible to include all the events from all four Gospels in a coherent sequence - go try it. Not one person has ever succeeded.


Luke 3:22
The words of God at the Baptism

Early MSS and quotes have the same as the Psalm :
"...and a voice came from heaven, which said, Thou are my son, this day have I begotten thee"

But later versions have changed it to :
"...and a voice came from heaven, which said, Thou art my beloved son; in thee I am well pleased"

Here we see Christian scribes have CHANGED the very words of God, or the alleged words of God. And we know the reason - it supports the view called Adoptionism - later called a heresy.

In other words, Christian writers had no compunction about changing the supposed words of God himself, at a crucial time in the story. Clearly this does not represent anything real or historical.



1 John 5:7
The Trinity

"For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. "

This passage is not found in ANY early Greek MSS, and was therefore not included in the original Textus Receptus of Erasmus in the 16th Century.
Erasmus said "I will not include the Comma unless I see a Greek MSS which includes it".
Sure enough, a newly written Greek MSS suddenly "appeared" with this passage, so Erasmus ADDED it to the 2nd edition - how dishonest and errant can you get !


Matthew 6:13
The Lord's Prayer

Early and important MSS (Aleph, B, D, Z, 205, 547) as well as some fathers (Tertullian, Origen, and Cyprian) have :
"And lead us not into temptation, But deliver us from evil"

Other MSS have :
"And lead us not into temptation, but deliver us from evil: For thine is the kingdom, and the power, and the glory, for ever. Amen"

And a few MSS have another version :
"And lead us not into temptation, but deliver us from evil: For thine is the kingdom, and the power, and the glory, of the father, the son, and the holy spirit for ever. Amen"

A few MSS exclude the words "the power" or "the glory" or "the kingdom".

The Lord's Prayer is one of the more variant parts of the NT.

Now,
this prayer was supposedly taught by Jesus himself.
But
early Christians could not agree what the prayer said !



Mark 1:1
Jesus Christ [Son of God]

Early MSS do not have "son of God".


John 9:35
Son of Man/God

Early MSS have :
"Jesus heard that they had cast him out, and having found him he said, Do you believe in the Son of man?"

Later versions have :
"Jesus heard that they had cast him out; and when he had found him, he said unto him, Dost thou believe on the Son of God?"



Acts 8:37
JC is the Son of God

"And Phillip said, if thou believest with all thine heart, thou mayest. And he answered and said, I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God"

This passage is missing from all the early MSS.

In other words, the MSS show a consistent pattern of "Son of Man" being changed into "Son of God".




Mark 1:2
As written in [Isaiah]

The early MSS have :
"As it is written in Isaiah the prophet..."

But most later versions have :
"As it is written in the prophets..."

Probably because the quote is NOT really from Isaiah (its composited from Isaiah, Malachai, and Exodus) - the eariest MSS were wrong, so later versions fixed this error by using just "prophets".

Here we see later scribes fixing up an earlier mistake.
Clear and present proof of errancy.



Colossians 1:14
Redemption by blood


All early MSS have the shorter :
"in whom we have redemption, the forgiveness of sins"

But later copies have added "through his blood" :
"In whom we have redemption through his blood, even the forgiveness of sins"

This is an important proof-text for the doctrine of redemption by Chist's blood - but its a later addition.



So what does this show ?

1. The NT was often changed during its history.

2. The changes included some of the most important parts of Christian doctrine :
* the resurrection
* the alleged words of GOD at the Jordan!
* the Lord's Prayer
* the Trinity
etc.

3. The reason the NT was changed was often arguments over doctrine - i.e. different Christian sects fiddled the books to support their sect.


The NT is one of the most errant books you could find.


Kapyong
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Old 08-11-2009, 02:01 PM   #479
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Gday,

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yes, it makes it cleasr that those are the words of the author.
So,
you agree the NT is just as authentic as the Book of Mormon ?


K.
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Old 08-11-2009, 04:43 PM   #480
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Gday,

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yes, it makes it cleasr that those are the words of the author.
So,
you agree the NT is just as authentic as the Book of Mormon ?


K.
I think you are missing what I am referring to. I am not talking about whether they are true or not. I happen to believe they are true but that is irrelevant to the point.

Our certainty that what we have is what the author wrote is what I am talking about. I am confident we have an accurate record of both the NT and the book of mormom. It does not mean I beleive both to be true.
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