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04-15-2010, 01:27 PM | #11 | ||
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Okay... I don't know Greek, so don't ask me to parse these statements word by word, others here can do that for you.
I don't see Paul as a "normal" observant 2nd temple Jew, if that's the issue. But it seems that whoever redacted this letter wanted to present Paul as some kind of proper Jew who saw the coming of Christ as the end of the Law, or its supercession. This might have made sense to post-70 or post-135 gentiles, but not to typical Jews afaik. Quote:
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04-15-2010, 08:39 PM | #12 | ||
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Typical or not, I looked up this passage (Rom 16:25-27) and found out that the technical term for it is a "doxology." According to Literary forms in the New Testament: a handbook (or via: amazon.co.uk), by James L. Bailey & Lyle D. Vander Broek, the basic form of a doxology consists of 1) a reference to God in the dative case (in/to/by God, often using personal or relative pronouns to refer to God), 2) ascribe to God eternal glory (doxa in Greek, which can also mean honor, greatness or power), and 3) conclude with an "amen." This passage has all that for sure, in spades. In fact, this is the most embellished example of a doxology in the Pauline letters.
It also turns out it may not even be by Paul at all! Textually, this doxology is sometimes found after 16:24, or after 14:23, or in both places, or following 15:33 (as in p46), or not at all. This means it was added to the text of Romans at a later time, or in consequence of publication of Romans in several longer (16 chapter) and shorter (14 & 15 chapter) forms. Mark Nanos, in The Mystery of Romans (or via: amazon.co.uk), who in my humble opinion presents the best case for a Paul who is both a faithful and proud Jew who believes in the resurrected Christ, reconstructed from the texts as they have been received, makes a very strong case that Paul was not anti law at all. In my own oh-so-impossible-and-certainly-wrong POV, a redactor of an original Paul really did think the way you suggest about the relative value of his Christ figure versus Judaism, while the original Paul knew nothing of this Christ figure at all. In his view gentiles did not have to become circumcised to be cool with God. On the other hand, he did believe that the law was great for Jews, but because the law is required of all circumcised Jews, gentiles did not have to take on its burden. DCH Quote:
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04-15-2010, 08:56 PM | #13 | ||
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There was Jesus [ Joshua] the mad-man, Jesus [Joshua] the robber and Jesus [Joshua] the murderer. And further, there is no indication in Philo and Josephus that the Jewish Messiah was expected to be only called Joshua a very common name. |
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04-16-2010, 08:24 AM | #14 | |
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But I can't help thinking that an ordinary diaspora Jew of the 1st or 2nd C would assert something like "God is one, and His law is forever". No room for any goy Christ or new covenant. There were already established rules for proselytes in a world that wasn't facing incineration. |
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04-16-2010, 09:27 PM | #15 | ||
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Uh oh, I can't tell which of the two POVs I mentioned you meant when you said "this."
What exactly do you think is apocalyptic about things said in the epistles? The only overtly apocalyptic/eschatological things I can find are in 1 & 2 Thessalonians, and these I have all assigned to a redactor: 1 TH 4:2 For you know what instructions we gave you through the Lord Jesus. 14b that Jesus died and rose again, even so 15b who are left until the coming of the Lord 16d with the archangel's call, and with the sound of the trumpet of God 17b shall be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the airNow THAT is pretty harsh language. In the other books, though, the best that can be said is that the redactor thought Jesus Christ was resurrected, and this was important for his understanding of Jesus Christ's significance. However, I do see the redactor's Christ figure as developing from apocalyptic expectations that have been radically redefined, much like the way that Sethian (Jewish) Gnosticism developed from dashed apocalyptic expectations. In the parts I think are original to Paul, he speaks of a day of judgement: Romans 2:3 Do you suppose, O man, that when you judge those who do such things and yet do them yourself, you will escape the judgment of God?This is MUCH more tame than the above. Since I think his message was all about faithful gentiles being able to lay claim, on equal terms with circumcised Jews, to the inheritance God had promised to Abraham's seed, the question has to be raised about just when the promised land would be handed over to his "seed." He saw this as a kind of final judgement, probably some time in the distant future. None of those passages, though, speak of it as emminent or that we all live on the edge of the eschaton (I shore doo like them big words). Paul had a concept of a resurrection, but it is an immortal body one resurrects to. So, his promised land is the whole world and the resurrected saints are immortal. Cool. But until then, we have the world we live in everyday. Rom 4:13 The promise to Abraham and his descendants, that they should inherit the world, did not come through the law but through the righteousness of faith.DCH Quote:
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04-19-2010, 06:39 AM | #16 |
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Well the apocalyptic theme runs right through the NT. There are hints of "realized eschatology" but the classic version of Daniel et al seems to be the main focus.
If Paul wasn't an apocalypticist then his message about Christ becomes even more radical doesn't it? Was he saying that God had changed all the rules simply because it was the right time? This is of course possible but not what one would expect from an observant Jew. If Paul's theology came after the fall of the temple then it might be more logical as a reaction to God's judgment on Israel. But the canonical books all strive to date the birth of Christianity before 70. All of this could simply be a smokescreen for the real agenda: a gnostic re-interpretation of the Tanakh, with the traditional Torah relegated to obsolescence. The apocalyptic angle would then just have been a convenient supporting argument. |
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