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08-24-2007, 04:54 PM | #1 |
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Effective of Medium of Communication?
Are there any history buffs around that could speculate as to the percentage of the population that was actually literate around the time the original scriptures of the bible were scribed? |
08-24-2007, 06:42 PM | #2 |
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The forum does not assume that the scriptures were any particular god's method of communicating with people.
The vast majority of the people could not read, but enough of them could. As long as a few priests could read the holy scriptures to the assembled masses, the entire society can have access to the writings. |
08-24-2007, 07:46 PM | #3 |
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He didn't really but God inspired some people to write down what he normally communicates to the heart of man and that would only be at some time during their life and not necessarilty to every person. So really, the written word is a reproduction of true story by someone who felt inspired to tell us about it. Kind of like: I'll show you mine if you show me your interactive participation in the living word.
IOW, it is not a flat-earth-two-by-four kind of language. Oops, did I just call bible students 'flat earthers'? |
08-25-2007, 03:46 AM | #4 |
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Okay, nevermind.
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08-25-2007, 08:38 AM | #5 |
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You might want to read through this earlier thread:
literacy rates in the classical periods of the empire |
08-25-2007, 05:53 PM | #6 | |
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Quote:
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08-26-2007, 02:39 PM | #7 | |
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Quote:
due the range of the chronolgies most often put forward as hypothetical timetables for the original scribing of the new testament, and the Hebrew bible. These two sections of the "bible" have separate histories. Perhaps the telling statistic is the onset of the dark ages and almost total illiteracy as those in power of the new and strange "christian scriptures" commenced a systematic destruction of the patristic literature, and of the great libraries which defined the literacy of the empire up until the fourth century. Additionally, more directly related to your question, it is known that the Oath signed by the attendees summoned to Nicaea by Constantine indicated that slavery was prevalent amongst "christians" of that time. The Roman empire had a number of "classes" over their "slaves": the "freed slaves" and the plebian, the landholder - equestrian class and the patrician-senatorial-administrative upper class. Literacy levels varied across the classes. Best wishes, Pete Brown |
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08-26-2007, 03:48 PM | #8 |
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A more thorough answer to your question would
need to specify whether your after new testament or Hebrew bible history. The following applies to the NT history: 1) Prior to the first century BCE, the Greek civilisation flourished alongside the ancient Egyptian and Hebrew. When Julius Caesar bribed his way to the position of Pontifex Maximus and the dictatorship of the Roman Empire began its pillage of the regions, the dominant ancient languange was Greek. 2) The anwer to your question needs to examine both literacy in Greek and in Latin, for a start. And the relationship between the two langauages. We are reasonably sure that the inventors of the NT texts would have us believe that they were originally written in the "ancient language of the empire", ie: the Greek. 3) There is a period of revival during the centuries of antiquity in question called "The Second Sophistic". It indicated that literacy was not on the decline. Notably, the author who first coined the phrase "the second sophistic", Philostratus, wrote a biography of the 1st century author, sage and philosopher Apollonius of Tyana. 4) The great libraries of the empire were reported to contain vast amounts of ancient texts. In the sphere of learning, IMO, a collegiate structure predominated, which was above all things tolerant. It was not until the intolerance of christianity emerged, in the fourth century, that these libraries and their learning were destroyed and burnt, the temples destroyed, and the priests and philosophers who had assumed custodianship of these ancient roles, were executed and persecuted. The malevolent and despotic orders came from the top down, and commenced with Constantine, and with effect from the "Council" of Antioch, which followed his final military supremacy in the more ancient and rich and affluent eastern empire, and preluded the "council" of Nicaea. I think it is imperative to not only gauge the effects of the preservation of literacy, but also the history of its destruction. For both are part of the process. As a final comment, I have recently been stumbling around amidst the translations of fragments of papyrii from these centuries which seem to indicate that the literacy of the populace was assisted by a collegiate system of learning which supported lassistance with egal representation when required, and that women in some instances had just as highly developed level of literacy as did the men, and would represent themselves in the written records. |
08-26-2007, 04:20 PM | #9 | |
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Medium is the Message
Hi forty2oz,
This is an interesting point. We may recall that God previously chose stone tablets to get his message across. Here he chooses certain literary styles written on papyrus: action-adventure stories (Gospels and Acts), bickering/fatherly advice letters, and a rousing prophetic-apocalyptic tale, to get his message across. Obviously, God was interested in making his message popular as he chose these popular genres to communicate in, as opposed to less popular intellectual-biased genres such as philosophical treatises or histories. We should consider that God may once again consider similarly popular genres in the postmodern age to get his message across to a similarly wide audience. These include movies starring Eddie Murphy, CSI spinoffs, porn and youtube videos. Warmly, Philosopher Jay Quote:
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08-27-2007, 06:07 AM | #10 |
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Why God doesn't just communicate directly to our brains is a mystery the Bible-thumpers will never be able to answer.
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