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Old 07-10-2008, 10:08 AM   #31
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Words usually have a variety of meanings, and your argument that πειράζω usually means tested and not tempted is simply speculation, unless you have a large number of unambiguous sample uses of that word and words with similar meanings - which we do not have.
May I ask how you know this?

What kind of investigation of where and how frequently in the extant corpus of Greek literature πειράζω appears have you done that leads you to make the claim you made? If so, what was it? Did you use the TLG? Have you done any such investigation?

Do you yourself know what words the ancient Greeks used as synonyms of πειράζω? Do you yourself know what the Greek words are that "have similar meanings" to πειράζω as well as how many times they are used and with what meanings? If so, how do you know this?

Have you investigated what Hebrew word the LXX translators used πειράζω to translate? What meaning does this Hebrew word have? Do the LXX translators ever use πειράζω to translate any other Hebrew word(s)? Do you know?

Have you read the basic scholarly discussions -- Seesemann's, Spicq's, and especially Korn's -- on the meaning of the word? Are you even aware of these discussions and where you might find then?

Do you know for a fact, as you presumptuously imply you do, that I haven't taken the time to find and then to look at every instance of the use of πειράζω in Greek literature between the 8th century BCE and the 3rd CE and/or that I haven't had my findings checked by experts in Greek and Hebrew?

Did you read the footnotes in my article where I bring forth the evidence you say I don't have?

My money says "no" to all the above. In fact, you have no facility in Greek at all, do you, Pat?

(anyone want to wager that Pat will not only dodge giving responsive answers to all of these questions, but will argue/state/claim in one way or another that he doesn't have to, and that the questions are not important?).

Jeffrey
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Old 07-10-2008, 10:26 AM   #32
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Comments on the article's presuppositions -- i.e. that there was an HJ, that Christianity existed before Constantine -- are not. So Pete Brown, aaaa what's your name, Pat Cleaver, Chilli etc., and all (other) ex fundies with axes to grind, please don't use this thread to ride your hobby horses.
Jeffrey
the above is good reason to think that you are presupposing an HJ in your article.

Quote:
There is no compelling reason to doubt the claim of Matthew and Luke that prior to engaging in a public ministry (and as a concomitant to his baptism), Jesus had some sort of experience in which his resolve to follow a particular understanding of faithfulness to the God of Israel was “put to the test”.164 It may even have taken place both in the particular locale in which, according to the Synoptic Evangelists, we are told it occurred,165 as well as within the context of, or after, and as arising from, a period of fasting on Jesus’ part. The question, however, is whether this experience actually unfolded and transpired with even a minimal resemblance to the particular way that we are told by the Evangelists it did.
There are parts of your article that sounded to me like you are presupposing that Jesus actually existed.

The only reason that I think that I may have been incorrect is that Toto said that you did not presuppose HJ. Toto's assurance is really the only reason that I am reading it. I am half way through it, and I will give you a more educated critique when I finish reading it.
May I ask why we should expect that you are capable of giving anything resembling and "educated" critique? What are your qualifications for doing so? You have no grounding in Ancient languages. It seems clear that you have no formal training in Biblical studies either. And I'm wagering that you haven't read much, if anything at all, of literature on the "testing of Jesus", on Christology, and the figure of Satan/the Devil, and on πειράζω that I cite. So how on earth could any critique you might give of what I wrote qualify as as an "educated" one?

And please note not only that the WTS as Matthew and Luke present it still has an intended meaning whether or not there ever was an HJ, but that the question of whether there was an HJ is absolutely irrelevant for determining what Matthew and Luke say is the nature and content of the "testing" they speak of.

So your focus on whether or not I accept an HJ not only keeps missing the point, but shows that you have no understanding of what the point is. Given this, how do you have the chutzpah to assert that you are capable of critiquing in any way what I wrote, let alone that your critique would be in any way relevant and worth considering?

Jeffrey
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