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Old 05-15-2008, 03:21 PM   #41
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Thanks Iasion. I am very much an amateur and have only read a few books on this subject, but that was the impression I got too.
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Old 05-15-2008, 08:45 PM   #42
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The Epistle of the Apostles, 140-150CE :

The BOOK which Jesus Christ revealed unto his disciples: and how that Jesus Christ revealed the book for the company (college) of the apostles, the disciples of Jesus Christ, even the book which is for all men. Simon and Cerinthus, the false apostles, concerning whom it is written that no man shall cleave unto them, for there is in them deceit wherewith they bring men to destruction. (The book hath been written) that ye may be not flinch nor be troubled, and depart not from the word of the Gospel which ye have heard. Like as we heard it, we keep it in remembrance and have written it for the whole world.

This is obviously referring to a written Gospel, but gives no author's names.
I'm pretty sure this is referring to the Epistle of the Apostles itself. Which although really written 150 CE or later, claims to be a book written by the apostles themselves, in order to defend orthodoxy against heresy.
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Apology of Aristides, 138-161CE :

And it is said that God came down from heaven, and from a Hebrew virgin assumed and clothed himself with flesh; and the Son of God lived in a daughter of man. This is taught in the gospel, as it is called, which a short time was preached among them; and you also if you will read therein, may perceive the power which belongs to it.

This is obvious evidence of a written work which is specifically named "The Gospel" - but no name is given.

Furthermore, Aristides says this SINGULAR un-named Gospel was fairly NEW in the period 138-161 - clear evidence of the lateness of the Gospels, and the lateness of late naming.



Justin Martyr's 1st Apology, 150-160CE :

Ch. 66 : For the apostles, in the memoirs composed by them, which are called Gospels...


Justin Martyr's Dialogue with Trypho, 150-160CE, 3 references :

Ch. 100 : For I have showed already that Christ is called both Jacob and Israel; and I have proved that it is not in the blessing of Joseph and Judah alone that what relates to Him was proclaimed mysteriously, but also in the Gospel it is written that He said: 'All things are delivered unto me by My Father;' and, 'No man knoweth the Father but the Son; nor the Son but the Father, and they to whom the Son will reveal Him.'

This is all clear and obvious evidence of written works called Gospels - but no names given, even though Justin explicitly tells us what they were named ("which are called Gospels".) If Justin knew of any author's names he would CERTAINLY have given them.



The Acts of Peter, 150-200CE :

And Peter entered into the dining-hall and saw that the Gospel was being read, and he rolled up the book[/b] and said: Ye men that believe and hope in Christ, learn in what manner the holy Scripture of our Lord ought to be declared: whereof we by his grace wrote that which we could receive, though yet it appear unto you feeble, yet according to our power, even that which can be endured to be borne by (or instilled into) human flesh.

This is obvious evidence of a written Gospel - but no author's name is given.



The Treatise on the Resurrection, 170-200CE, 1 reference :

What, then, is the resurrection? It is always the disclosure of those who have risen. For if you remember reading in the Gospel that Elijah appeared and Moses with him, do not think the resurrection is an illusion.

This is obvious evidence of a written Gospel - but no author's name is given.



Hegesippus Fragments, c. 170CE :

With show of reason could it be said that Symeon was one of those who actually saw and heard the Lord, on the ground of his great age, and also because the Scripture of the Gospels makes mention of Mary the daughter of Clopas, who, as our narrative has shown already, was his father.

This is obvious evidence of a written Gospel - but no author's name is given.


There are many more references than these - the first few dozens of referencss to the Gospels are as UN-NAMED works.

The evidence is clear,
the Gospels were originally un-named.



Iasion
These passages raise somewhat different issues but I'll make a
general point. References here to "the Gospel" singular are IMO references, not to a single specific document, but to the good news about the life death and resurrection of Jesus written down in various forms. IE what matters is the common central narrative rather than whether it is in the version we call Matthew or in that we call Mark or in some harmony of what we call the synoptics or............Hence to refer to "the Gospel" as the Gospel of X is to distract from the claim that it is one and the same message, whichever written version one is using.

Andrew Criddle
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Old 05-15-2008, 09:31 PM   #43
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Well, Irenaus is quite a bit later than the time of composition of the gospels according to most datings, there's some evidence the gospels weren't even referred to by name at first. and NB the importance or even pre-eminence of the oral tradition.
An unsupported asumption, on your part, imo.

Show me the first recorded mention of the Gospels, if it wasn't Ireneaus.

Thanks.
All of these quote from the synoptic gospels and many epistles. or admittedly, you could say quotes from oral tradition but Polycarp references Pauls letter sent to the Philippians. I beleive they are quotes.

Epistle of Polycarp to the Philippians (disciple of John)
Letters of Ignatius (115)
Epistle of Clement to the Corinthians (95)

~Steve
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Old 05-15-2008, 09:31 PM   #44
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The evidence is clear,
the Gospels were originally un-named.



Iasion
And, it is also intersting to note that Justin Martyr gave details of a typical Sunday Church meeting, in the middle of the 2nd century, where he mentioned that these anonymous "memoirs of the apostles called Gospels" were used throughout the cities and country-side.

First Apology LXVII by Justin Martyr:
Quote:
And on the day called Sunday, all who live in the cities or in the country gather together to one one place, and the memoirs of the apostles or the writing of the prophets are read as long as time permits;....
So, there must have been numerous copies of the un-named Gospels in the middle of the 2nd century during Justin's time.
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Old 05-15-2008, 10:26 PM   #45
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I'm pretty sure this is referring to the Epistle of the Apostles itself. Which although really written 150 CE or later, claims to be a book written by the apostles themselves, in order to defend orthodoxy against heresy.
Don't you need some sort of corroborative support to be "pretty sure" of your claims.


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Originally Posted by andrewcriddle View Post
These passages raise somewhat different issues but I'll make a
general point. References here to "the Gospel" singular are IMO references, not to a single specific document, but to the good news about the life death and resurrection of Jesus written down in various forms. IE what matters is the common central narrative rather than whether it is in the version we call Matthew or in that we call Mark or in some harmony of what we call the synoptics or............Hence to refer to "the Gospel" as the Gospel of X is to distract from the claim that it is one and the same message, whichever written version one is using.

Andrew Criddle
So are you claiming that it was a distraction to name the Gospels, Matthew, Mark, Luke and John if they actually wrote these Gospels?

Justin Martyr, without any apparent distraction of the Gospel message, referred to the prophets of the OT by name and mentioned the writings of these prophets in First Apology and Dialogue with Trypho.

He mentioned Isaiah, Jeremiah, Moses, Zechariah, Ezekiel, Zephaniah, Malachi, Hosea, Noah, Elijah, Micah and Daniel in order to re-inforce the message of the Gospel.

I would think that a writing would appear more authentic if the author is named rather than anonymous. And perhaps Irenaeus, Tertullian, Origen and Eusebius thought the same thing.

Your "distraction claim" is extremekly weak.
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Old 05-16-2008, 12:35 AM   #46
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It's not a particularly weak argument.
The problem is that you are working from the assumption that
a) it's says (for instance) john wrote it, therefore john wrote it.

We know from other religious/bibilically based texts that various scribes contributed to books, a tiny piece at a time, their copy accuracy wasn't that great.

b) Everyone seems to be neglecting a really huge issue, the earlier versions of the texts were pretty much utterly devoid of punctuation, even if the words are the not that different the content can be seen in a very different light with punctuation added.

see the following amusing example.

The devil is, me, I am not.

The devil is me! I am! (not).

The devil is me I am not.

we haven't even gone into the issues surround interpretation from various languages into other languages here.. and there are a few really obvious issues straight away.
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Old 05-16-2008, 12:53 AM   #47
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An unsupported asumption, on your part, imo.

Show me the first recorded mention of the Gospels, if it wasn't Ireneaus.

Thanks.
All of these quote from the synoptic gospels and many epistles. or admittedly, you could say quotes from oral tradition but Polycarp references Pauls letter sent to the Philippians. I beleive they are quotes.

Epistle of Polycarp to the Philippians (disciple of John)
Letters of Ignatius (115)
Epistle of Clement to the Corinthians (95)

~Steve
There are significant issues with these works.
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Old 05-16-2008, 06:45 AM   #48
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Quote:
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The evidence is clear,
the Gospels were originally un-named.



Iasion
And, it is also intersting to note that Justin Martyr gave details of a typical Sunday Church meeting, in the middle of the 2nd century, where he mentioned that these anonymous "memoirs of the apostles called Gospels" were used throughout the cities and country-side.

First Apology LXVII by Justin Martyr:
Quote:
And on the day called Sunday, all who live in the cities or in the country gather together to one one place, and the memoirs of the apostles or the writing of the prophets are read as long as time permits;....
So, there must have been numerous copies of the un-named Gospels in the middle of the 2nd century during Justin's time.
well, I have not read it outside of your quote so I may be speaking out of ignorance (which does not seem to be stopping me) but it appears that you added the word anonymous. Justin Martyr seems to be attributing the memoirs to the apostles in the same manner he is attributing the writings to the prophets. Why do you consider this anonymous?

~Steve
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Old 05-16-2008, 06:51 AM   #49
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And, it is also intersting to note that Justin Martyr gave details of a typical Sunday Church meeting, in the middle of the 2nd century, where he mentioned that these anonymous "memoirs of the apostles called Gospels" were used throughout the cities and country-side.

First Apology LXVII by Justin Martyr:

So, there must have been numerous copies of the un-named Gospels in the middle of the 2nd century during Justin's time.
well, I have not read it outside of your quote so I may be speaking out of ignorance (which does not seem to be stopping me) but it appears that you added the word anonymous. Justin Martyr seems to be attributing the memoirs to the apostles in the same manner he is attributing the writings to the prophets. Why do you consider this anonymous?

~Steve
Your point is correct; I'm afraid Iasion's remarks are distinctly tendentious. Likewise Justin does not name the apostles either -- presumably, on the same logic, they were anonymous too?

All the best,

Roger Pearse
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Old 05-16-2008, 06:53 AM   #50
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I'm pretty sure this is referring to the Epistle of the Apostles itself. Which although really written 150 CE or later, claims to be a book written by the apostles themselves, in order to defend orthodoxy against heresy.
Don't you need some sort of corroborative support to be "pretty sure" of your claims.


Quote:
Originally Posted by andrewcriddle View Post
These passages raise somewhat different issues but I'll make a
general point. References here to "the Gospel" singular are IMO references, not to a single specific document, but to the good news about the life death and resurrection of Jesus written down in various forms. IE what matters is the common central narrative rather than whether it is in the version we call Matthew or in that we call Mark or in some harmony of what we call the synoptics or............Hence to refer to "the Gospel" as the Gospel of X is to distract from the claim that it is one and the same message, whichever written version one is using.

Andrew Criddle
So are you claiming that it was a distraction to name the Gospels, Matthew, Mark, Luke and John if they actually wrote these Gospels?

Justin Martyr, without any apparent distraction of the Gospel message, referred to the prophets of the OT by name and mentioned the writings of these prophets in First Apology and Dialogue with Trypho.

He mentioned Isaiah, Jeremiah, Moses, Zechariah, Ezekiel, Zephaniah, Malachi, Hosea, Noah, Elijah, Micah and Daniel in order to re-inforce the message of the Gospel.

I would think that a writing would appear more authentic if the author is named rather than anonymous. And perhaps Irenaeus, Tertullian, Origen and Eusebius thought the same thing.

Your "distraction claim" is extremekly weak.
Couldn't it also speak to being un-necessary because it was common knowledge. We are only 150 - 50 years after. Perhaps, it was common knowledge. The writings of the prophets would have been less familiar to the gentile church. There are many things we do not need to clarify in this dicussion because we both know them to be true. this void is not that telling.

~Steve
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