FRDB Archives

Freethought & Rationalism Archive

The archives are read only.


Go Back   FRDB Archives > Archives > Religion (Closed) > Biblical Criticism & History
Welcome, Peter Kirby.
You last visited: Yesterday at 03:12 PM

 
 
Thread Tools Search this Thread
Old 09-08-2005, 03:52 AM   #101
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2001
Location: ""
Posts: 3,863
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
Hang on a minute. What's this about forged documents? Working form relative probabilities, there's a good chance that Paul corresponded with Seneca. After all we have the letters as primary evidence. There's no problem here. Paul, when he went to Rome, could easily have been introduced to Seneca by one of the freed men in the house of Caesar. So, not only do we have the letters, but we have the opportunity as well.
spni
You too spin are resorting to sarcasm? Is this discussion done?
Toto makes non-specific allusions to "indelible links" to forged documents.
Acts certainly wan't "forged" (even the author is not named) so she isn't talking about Acts.
What I would like to know is, are there any problems with dating Paul and his activities based on Acts 18:12?
Lets see the objections ladies and gentlemen.
I accept that AActs had his/her own agenda in writing Acts, including legitimizing Petrine Christianity, presenting Paul as still the convinced Pharisee and as subordinate to "the twelve". I know AActs also lied and embellished the story and employed his own literary artistry in authoring the work.
But I also recognize that AActs cannot be judged by modern historical standards (which require that a historian only tells what took place) and I am cognizant of the fact that we treat Josephus as a historian even though he exaggerates issues and even narrates the impossible as if it took place.

Just lay down the arguments why Acts 18:12 should not be used as a historical marker. Now.
Ted Hoffman is offline  
Old 09-08-2005, 06:53 AM   #102
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Jan 2005
Location: USA
Posts: 1,307
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
Except for the problem between Aretas IV and Herod Antipas, the Nabataean kingdom was decidedly south - south of Peraea. You have to get south past the Dead Sea to get to Petra. During the problem period there is some doubt over Machaerus. There is not another indication on the subject.
Well, that little problem between Aretas IV and Antipas included a border dispute in the region of Gamala (Jos., AJ 18.113), a region lying between Galilee and Damascus.

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
In fact, Josephus clearly indicates against the line you are advocating: Vitellius, when charged with bringing Aretas back dead or alive, sets off not for Damascus, but for Petra. Vitellius goes to march through Judea to go to Petra. Damascus isn't a trajectory or a consideration. Aretas IV's involvement in Damascus is all a fabrication to justify 2 Cor 11.
Second Cor 11 does not claim that Aretas was in Damascus, only that his ethnarch was. Of course, if Vitellius was charged with capturing Aretas, he would go to where Aretas was (e.g. Petra), not where one of his ethnarchs happened to be.

Stephen
S.C.Carlson is offline  
Old 09-08-2005, 07:22 AM   #103
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Jan 2005
Location: USA
Posts: 1,307
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Toto
He's in prison, but we don't know how he got there, as with Philemon.
Being in prison is evidence of running afoul of the authorities.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Toto
But that's what we don't know - how did Paul's audience react to this? Was that in fact a contemporary figure? Was it a metaphorical reference to a well known story about someone who escaped from Aretas III?
Is there a well-known story about someone who escaped from Aretas III? That would be important.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Toto
For example. Clarence Thomas complained that he was subject to a "high tech lynching." Everyone knew exactly what he meant, and no one took it literally.
Perhaps because literal lynchings were low-tech affairs.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Toto
Google "King George" and note the number of times that phrase refers ironically to George Bush.
I haven't counted them all, but I'm sure what it would mean if I did.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Toto
We don't know much. But I thought it was an agreed fact that Aretas IV did not control Damascus. (I have not been able to read the article you referenced above.) The idea that there was an "ethnarch" in Damascus with some governing authority over a segment of the population is a speculation intended to save the historicity of the passage.
I'd like to know who agreed to this "fact." A reference work outside of the field of Biblical studies, The Oxford Classical Dictionary states that "Aretas apparently had brief control of Damascus" and cites 2 Cor 11:32 for it. The classicists are apparently not quite so conflicted about using Paul for evidence.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Toto
There is the contention that the reference to Aretas and Damascus here is a later interpolation by someone who was vague on history. (Sid Green, A Suspected Interpolation in 2 Corinthians. Some of this article is outdated, but its observations on language seem pertinent.) It's a much simpler solution that the contortions that are required to fix this in history.
Sid Green's article concedes that a broad range of historians accepts the 2 Cor 11:32 datum but uses Acts to call 2 Cor 11:32 into question:

Quote:
Historians, as well as critics of both the believing and unbelieving varieties, have simply accepted this supposed fact, even though the author of Acts was apparently ignorant of it.
In terms of method, that's backward. Primary source evidence (Paul) should be used to call the secondary source into question, not the other way around.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Toto
After all, does that story even make sense? What was Aretas' motive in going after Paul?
If Paul had never been to Arabia, then the question of motive would be a serious problem. But in Gal 1:17, Paul stated that he went into Arabia and returned to Damascus. We don't need to know exactly how Paul annoyed the Arabian authorities for their motive to be plausible. (Note: 2 Cor 11:32 only deals with the actions of Aretas's ethnarch; whether Aretas himself knew or cared about it is irrelevant).

Stephen
S.C.Carlson is offline  
Old 09-08-2005, 07:59 AM   #104
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Apr 2004
Location: London, UK
Posts: 3,210
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by S.C.Carlson
In terms of method, that's backward. Primary source evidence (Paul) should be used to call the secondary source into question, not the other way around.
'scuse me please, but how can we call Paul a "primary source" in any strict historical sense? I mean it's not like we have a copy of Paul's letters on the original papyrus or anything, is it?
gurugeorge is offline  
Old 09-08-2005, 08:26 AM   #105
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Jan 2005
Location: USA
Posts: 1,307
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by gurugeorge
'scuse me please, but how can we call Paul a "primary source" in any strict historical sense? I mean it's not like we have a copy of Paul's letters on the original papyrus or anything, is it?
It depends on how strict you want to be. But let's not lose sight of the issue. It's not like we have the autographs for Josephus and Acts either... In fact, Paul's text is better attested with manuscript evidence than either Acts or Josephus.

Stephen
S.C.Carlson is offline  
Old 09-08-2005, 10:49 AM   #106
Contributor
 
Join Date: Jun 2000
Location: Los Angeles area
Posts: 40,549
Default

This is all a bit circular. 2 Cor 11 is used as evidence that Aretas had some control over Damascus, even though there is no other corroboration.

Do you need the contrary evidence (such as it is in Acts) to entertain some doubts about whether a passing reference to King Aretas is meant as history, or understood as such? Does this passage have any indicia of reliability about it?

When Aretas's possible motives are questioned, 2 Cor is used as evidence that Paul stirred up trouble all over the place (as opposed to being in prison once) so there's the motive.

I can't seem to get you to take the idea seriously that Paul might have been speaking in metaphor, or that King Aretas might be as literal as King George.

There is one thing that seems certain: Paul was not writing history. We don't have evidence of his letter in the first century, so we don't know the audience for this letter, we can't be sure that the audience was contemporary with Aretas IV, we can't even be really sure that Aretas and Damascus were mentioned in the original of the letter.
Toto is offline  
Old 09-08-2005, 01:01 PM   #107
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Sep 2004
Location: Birmingham UK
Posts: 4,876
Default

One possible chronological indicator in Paul is 1 Thessalonians 5:3
Quote:
When people say "there is peace and security' then sudden destruction will come upon them...
Many commentators regard the phrase 'peace and security' as a specific (negative) reference to the Pax Romana of Augustus and his successors from say 30 BCE onwards, and in any case this passage would read oddly in the time of the major civil wars of the period before the battle of Actium.
andrewcriddle is offline  
Old 09-08-2005, 04:26 PM   #108
Contributor
 
Join Date: Mar 2002
Location: nowhere
Posts: 15,747
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by S.C.Carlson
Well, that little problem between Aretas IV and Antipas included a border dispute in the region of Gamala (Jos., AJ 18.113), a region lying between Galilee and Damascus.
Actually, it lay east of the northern part of the Galilean lake. You'd have to nudge it northward to be where you want it, but we have already established that there were Arabs in the vicinity of Damascus eg in the Trachonitis.

We are dealing with a cause of grievance, not a physical presence in the area. Just as Herod often represented Jews throughout the Mediterranean, we see Aretas doing the same thing for the Arabs. Herod apparently encroached on Arab territory. Aretas didn't do anything about it, at least until the marriage grievance, ie Aretas had no presence in Gamalitis -- otherwise, why wait? It suggests that he couldn't because he wasn't there and that it was just an Arab cause that he was "advocating".

Quote:
Originally Posted by S.C.Carlson
Second Cor 11 does not claim that Aretas was in Damascus, only that his ethnarch was. Of course, if Vitellius was charged with capturing Aretas, he would go to where Aretas was (e.g. Petra), not where one of his ethnarchs happened to be.
Vitellius made no attempt to undo any hypothetical damage caused by this imagined taking of Damascus. Instead he arrived at Ptolemais on the coast and crossed the great plain on his way south. Had there been a problem over Damascus Vitellius had a legion (XII Fulminata) 100 kilometres away at Raphaneae that he could have led to deal with it. (There were four legions in Syria, the camps for three are known of.)

Rome simply didn't leave grievances lie. Vitellius paid no attention to Damascus, ie there was no grievance. Instead he went straight for Petra. Had there been a grievance about a Roman holding, he surely would have dealt with it. Petty squabbles could happen and he would not have intervened -- until instructed to as in this case.

We have no Nabataean presence anywhere near Damascus and no indication that Damascus was in the hands of Aretas IV. It's time we stopped doing "fanta-history".


spin
spin is offline  
Old 09-09-2005, 07:26 AM   #109
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2003
Location: Earth
Posts: 1,443
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
Aretas didn't do anything about it, at least until the marriage grievance, ie Aretas had no presence in Gamalitis -- otherwise, why wait? It suggests that he couldn't because he wasn't there and that it was just an Arab cause that he was "advocating".
The passage in question also says that Herod's army was destroyed by the treachery of some "fugitives" from the tetrarchy of Philip (or has this already been mentioned?) Doesn't that seem to suggest that Herod's army may have been destroyed somewhere near Philip's lands, or at least that fugitives from Philip's tetrarchy might have had some motivation for betraying Herod's army into the hands of Aretas?

Quote:
Vitellius made no attempt to undo any hypothetical damage caused by this imagined taking of Damascus.
Except I'm not sure the Greek says this--it says an ethnarch was guarding Damascus in order to catch Paul. But this doesn't necessarily mean the ethnarch was ruling Damascus. I would say it's unclear.

Quote:
Rome simply didn't leave grievances lie. Vitellius paid no attention to Damascus, ie there was no grievance.
Possibly because no real forces remained there, and Damascus in fact remained out of Aretas' control (though it still lay on the borderlands.)

Quote:
We have no Nabataean presence anywhere near Damascus and no indication that Damascus was in the hands of Aretas IV.
I don't think we need to conclude that Aretas was governing Damascus. And we seem to know that the area south of Damascus was considered "Arabia". So there is some connection at least.
the_cave is offline  
Old 09-09-2005, 11:43 AM   #110
Contributor
 
Join Date: Mar 2002
Location: nowhere
Posts: 15,747
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by the_cave
The passage in question also says that Herod's army was destroyed by the treachery of some "fugitives" from the tetrarchy of Philip (or has this already been mentioned?) Doesn't that seem to suggest that Herod's army may have been destroyed somewhere near Philip's lands, or at least that fugitives from Philip's tetrarchy might have had some motivation for betraying Herod's army into the hands of Aretas?
Why? Herod Antipas and Philip were brothers. Philip had supplied forces to Herod Antipas. During the battle they changed sides. How else can you explain the "betrayal/treason"?

Quote:
Originally Posted by the_cave
Except I'm not sure the Greek says this--it says an ethnarch was guarding Damascus in order to catch Paul. But this doesn't necessarily mean the ethnarch was ruling Damascus. I would say it's unclear.
Yeah, this is one of the first two options casually considered and discounted by Campbell for relatively good reasons.

Quote:
Originally Posted by the_cave
Possibly because no real forces remained there, and Damascus in fact remained out of Aretas' control (though it still lay on the borderlands.)
This view is based on your presupposition that Aretas might have had a tetrarch physically just outside Damascus (whose aim was for some unknown reason to apprehend this politically threatening Paul).

Quote:
Originally Posted by the_cave
I don't think we need to conclude that Aretas was governing Damascus.
Yes, we do. Unless otherwise indicated, the normal usage of the verb frourew is for one in control of a place, to guard or garrison.

Quote:
Originally Posted by the_cave
And we seem to know that the area south of Damascus was considered "Arabia". So there is some connection at least.
The area south. The area east. Palmyra and its desert. Arabia was such a loose term that the Nabataeans were also included. This doesn't justify the notion that Aretas IV had anything directly to do with this Arabia.


spin
spin is offline  
 

Thread Tools Search this Thread
Search this Thread:

Advanced Search

Forum Jump


All times are GMT -8. The time now is 05:09 AM.

Top

This custom BB emulates vBulletin® Version 3.8.2
Copyright ©2000 - 2015, Jelsoft Enterprises Ltd.