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09-08-2005, 03:52 AM | #101 | |
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Toto makes non-specific allusions to "indelible links" to forged documents. Acts certainly wan't "forged" (even the author is not named) so she isn't talking about Acts. What I would like to know is, are there any problems with dating Paul and his activities based on Acts 18:12? Lets see the objections ladies and gentlemen. I accept that AActs had his/her own agenda in writing Acts, including legitimizing Petrine Christianity, presenting Paul as still the convinced Pharisee and as subordinate to "the twelve". I know AActs also lied and embellished the story and employed his own literary artistry in authoring the work. But I also recognize that AActs cannot be judged by modern historical standards (which require that a historian only tells what took place) and I am cognizant of the fact that we treat Josephus as a historian even though he exaggerates issues and even narrates the impossible as if it took place. Just lay down the arguments why Acts 18:12 should not be used as a historical marker. Now. |
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09-08-2005, 06:53 AM | #102 | ||
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09-08-2005, 07:22 AM | #103 | ||||||||
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09-08-2005, 07:59 AM | #104 | |
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09-08-2005, 08:26 AM | #105 | |
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09-08-2005, 10:49 AM | #106 |
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This is all a bit circular. 2 Cor 11 is used as evidence that Aretas had some control over Damascus, even though there is no other corroboration.
Do you need the contrary evidence (such as it is in Acts) to entertain some doubts about whether a passing reference to King Aretas is meant as history, or understood as such? Does this passage have any indicia of reliability about it? When Aretas's possible motives are questioned, 2 Cor is used as evidence that Paul stirred up trouble all over the place (as opposed to being in prison once) so there's the motive. I can't seem to get you to take the idea seriously that Paul might have been speaking in metaphor, or that King Aretas might be as literal as King George. There is one thing that seems certain: Paul was not writing history. We don't have evidence of his letter in the first century, so we don't know the audience for this letter, we can't be sure that the audience was contemporary with Aretas IV, we can't even be really sure that Aretas and Damascus were mentioned in the original of the letter. |
09-08-2005, 01:01 PM | #107 | |
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One possible chronological indicator in Paul is 1 Thessalonians 5:3
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09-08-2005, 04:26 PM | #108 | ||
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We are dealing with a cause of grievance, not a physical presence in the area. Just as Herod often represented Jews throughout the Mediterranean, we see Aretas doing the same thing for the Arabs. Herod apparently encroached on Arab territory. Aretas didn't do anything about it, at least until the marriage grievance, ie Aretas had no presence in Gamalitis -- otherwise, why wait? It suggests that he couldn't because he wasn't there and that it was just an Arab cause that he was "advocating". Quote:
Rome simply didn't leave grievances lie. Vitellius paid no attention to Damascus, ie there was no grievance. Instead he went straight for Petra. Had there been a grievance about a Roman holding, he surely would have dealt with it. Petty squabbles could happen and he would not have intervened -- until instructed to as in this case. We have no Nabataean presence anywhere near Damascus and no indication that Damascus was in the hands of Aretas IV. It's time we stopped doing "fanta-history". spin |
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09-09-2005, 07:26 AM | #109 | ||||
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09-09-2005, 11:43 AM | #110 | |||||
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