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Old 12-20-2006, 03:41 PM   #31
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I use "spirit" in its old Jewish meaning of "spirit of inspiration". It is that which drives the thought of the artist, philosopher and mystic.
Is "spirit of inspiration" really the (let alone the only) "old Jewish meaning" of PNEUMA? And is "spirit of inspiration", if not a redundancy, really a meaningful concept? Do we actually find the OT (or the Rabbis) speaking of the thoughts of artists and philosophers and mystics, let alone artists, philosophers, and mystics themselves being "driven" (to create?) by "PNEUMA? Does the OT even know of such persons?

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Old 12-20-2006, 03:43 PM   #32
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So, just one question then: do you recognize that Christ is animated by a spirit of inspiration similar to that of, say, the great mystic Meister Eckhart?
I start having problems with the "animated by a spirit" part. Are we talking here about some, well, external, extant "spirit" that possesses and animates people? I don't recognize a "spirit" in that sense.

In a more mundane sense, I can accept the sense of a "spirit of inspiration" that at least some of us seem to possess quite naturally in various degrees (as an emergent property of our existence, not as an external, possessing spirit).

I'm not sure I'm coming across quite well in that. Bottom line is, I think of "spirit" in a quite human and natural sense, certainly not in any numinous or supernatural sense.
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Old 12-20-2006, 03:48 PM   #33
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I start having problems with the "animated by a spirit" part. Are we talking here about some, well, external, extant "spirit" that possesses and animates people? I don't recognize a "spirit" in that sense.

In a more mundane sense, I can accept the sense of a "spirit of inspiration" that at least some of us seem to possess quite naturally in various degrees (as an emergent property of our existence, not as an external, possessing spirit).

I'm not sure I'm coming across quite well in that. Bottom line is, I think of "spirit" in a quite human and natural sense, certainly not in any numinous or supernatural sense.
I agree on all points. So let me ask: don't you think it a shame that a man like Eckhart is forced to abjure his sense of inspiration, or that a man like Christ is murdered because of his refusal to abjure the same?
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Old 12-20-2006, 03:52 PM   #34
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I agree on all points. So let me ask: don't you think it a shame that a man like Eckhart is forced to abjure his sense of inspiration, or that a man like Christ is murdered because of his refusal to abjure the same?
Is that why Jesus was executed??? For his "sense of inspiration"?

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Old 12-20-2006, 03:55 PM   #35
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I agree on all points. So let me ask: don't you think it a shame that a man like Eckhart is forced to abjure his sense of inspiration, or that a man like Christ is murdered because of his refusal to abjure the same?
No one should be forced to abjure their sense of inspiration, nor should anyone be murdered because of his refusal to abjure the same.

Easy question, easy answer. But for some reason, I'm waiting for the other shoe to drop...

In any case, we seem to be wandering away from the topic of the OP quite a bit here, what with the talk of "spirits of inspiration" and how we can agree it's wrong to suppress or murder people who express novel or interesting ideas therefrom.
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Old 12-20-2006, 03:55 PM   #36
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Is that why Jesus was executed??? For his "sense of inspiration"?
Yes. His mystical self-identification with the Father was judged blasphemy, as it was in the case of Eckhart.
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Old 12-20-2006, 04:00 PM   #37
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The issue according to the NT, ultimately, is not who nailed Jesus to the cross but that Jesus died according to the will of the Father to pay for sins... *of which all humans are responsible and guilty*

Ultimately the Jews nor the Romans are especially to blame anymore than every one of us -as sinners- are to blame.

This is more likely the reason for the seeming lack of urgency to pin down the 'culprit'.
I am so embarrassed. I used to find this answer "deep."
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Old 12-20-2006, 04:07 PM   #38
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I am so embarrassed. I used to find this answer "deep."
I did as well. Now I read something like that and think, "What the fuck-all did I have to do with it?"

And the only reason I might have a "lack of urgency" to "pin" Jesus' death on anyone is that I really don't care who actually killed the guy (beyond perhaps an interest in historical accuracy). They're long dead anyway, and so there's nothing that could be done to them, nor should any retribution be made on any of their descendants.

It's certainly not because I feel any sort of guilt associated with the death of some first-century resident of an obscure Mediterranian state under control of the Roman Empire.
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Old 12-20-2006, 04:18 PM   #39
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Yes. His mystical self-identification with the Father was judged blasphemy, as it was in the case of Eckhart.
Where do we find "self identification" (let alone a "mystical one") with the father" at the seat, or as the cause, of the charge of blasphemy that is reported as having been leveled against Jesus in any of the Gospel accounts of his trial?

And would Pliate give a gnats ass about Jesus being a "blasphemer" no matter what the cause of the charge of blasphemy might have been?

And what on earth is a "mystical self identification" anyway? How does it differ from any other forms of "self identification"?

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Old 12-20-2006, 08:39 PM   #40
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Hmmm. Next thing we know, you're going to be getting drunk, going for an erratic drive, and shouting anti-semetic slurs when you get arrested.

-Ubercat
I'll let you handle that part for me.
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