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Old 05-13-2006, 09:56 AM   #1
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Default The Gospel of Peter vs. The Gospel of John

Given that neither the Gospel of Peter nor the Gospel of John bear much similarity with the synoptics but both are named after famous apostles, what are the arguments that Christians employ to support the authorship of the latter and to discredit the former?

If dating the Gospel of Peter typically ranges from 100-130CE whereas the Gospel of John spans the years 90-120CE and we put aside any Gnsotic/Nestorian/Homoean/Nicean conflicts, why is one author authentic and the other considered pseudepigraphical?
:huh:
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Old 05-13-2006, 01:20 PM   #2
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Originally Posted by dongiovanni1976x
Given that neither the Gospel of Peter nor the Gospel of John bear much similarity with the synoptics but both are named after famous apostles, what are the arguments that Christians employ to support the authorship of the latter and to discredit the former?

If dating the Gospel of Peter typically ranges from 100-130CE whereas the Gospel of John spans the years 90-120CE and we put aside any Gnsotic/Nestorian/Homoean/Nicean conflicts, why is one author authentic and the other considered pseudepigraphical?
:huh:
The Gospel of Peter is probably dependent directly or indirectly on John's Gospel as well as the Synoptic tradition For example we have the reference to Jesus' legs not being broken (Gospel of Peter section 4) and to the tomb of Jesus being in a garden (Gospel of Peter section 6) The end of the Gospel of Peter may be parallel to John 21 but it is difficult to be sure.

Although the date of the Gospel of Peter is unclear IMHO I would date it c 150 CE rather later than the date of John's Gospel

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Old 05-13-2006, 03:56 PM   #3
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I agree with Andrew on GPeter. It is clearly dependent on at least Mark and Matt. Andrew, what, if anything, implies dependence on Luke?
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Old 05-14-2006, 04:52 AM   #4
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I agree with Andrew on GPeter. It is clearly dependent on at least Mark and Matt. Andrew, what, if anything, implies dependence on Luke?
IMO the general tendency of GPeter to make Herod a major player in the death of Jesus is dependent on Luke 23:6-12 but this is not a matter of direct citation.

The closest direct parallel is probably in GPeter section 4 where one of the thieves crucified with Jesus says "We are suffering for the deeds which we have committed but this man who has become the saviour of men what wrong has he done you ?" compare Luke 23:39-41.

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Old 05-14-2006, 09:58 AM   #5
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:wave:

Hi everyone, and this topic interests me, and specifically:

GoP:

VIII. But the scribes and Pharisees and elders gathered one with another, for they had heard that all the people were murmuring and beating their breasts, saying: If these very great signs have come to pass at his death, behold how righteous he was. And the elders were afraid and came unto Pilate, entreating him and saying: Give us soldiers that we (or they) may watch his sepulchre for three days, lest his disciples come and steal him away and the people suppose that he is risen from the dead, and do us hurt. And Pilate gave them Petronius the centurion with soldiers to watch the sepulchre; and the elders and scribes came with them unto the tomb, and when they had rolled a great stone to keep out (al. together with) the centurion and the soldiers, then all that were there together set it upon the door of the tomb; and plastered thereon seven seals; and they pitched a tent there and kept watch.


Two or three phrases here appear in the Gospels and Book of Revelation and would indicate a late dating.

Has anyone discussed these features of GoP so far?
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Old 05-14-2006, 10:02 AM   #6
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Quote:
Originally Posted by andrewcriddle
IMO the general tendency of GPeter to make Herod a major player in the death of Jesus is dependent on Luke 23:6-12 but this is not a matter of direct citation.

The closest direct parallel is probably in GPeter section 4 where one of the thieves crucified with Jesus says "We are suffering for the deeds which we have committed but this man who has become the saviour of men what wrong has he done you ?" compare Luke 23:39-41.

Andrew Criddle
Andrew :wave:

Are you referring to GoP:

I. But of the Jews no man washed his hands, neither did Herod nor any one of his judges: and whereas they would not wash, Pilate rose up. And then Herod the king commanded that the Lord should be taken into their hands, saying unto them: All that I commanded you to do unto him, do ye.

II. Now there stood there Joseph the friend of Pilate and of the Lord, and he, knowing that they were about to crucify him, came unto Pilate and begged the body of Jesus for burial. And Pilate sending unto Herod, begged his body. And Herod said: Brother Pilate, even if none had begged for him, we should have buried him, since also the Sabbath dawneth; for it is written in the law that the sun should not set upon one that hath been slain (murdered).
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Old 05-14-2006, 10:25 AM   #7
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Originally Posted by andrewcriddle
the Gospel of Peter may be parallel to John 21 but it is difficult to be sure.
Andrew, speaking of John 21 has there ever been any investigation into verse 23? It seems very odd, almost as if it was added later or that there was a rumor floating about and the author of John wanted to clear it up...? Just curious..

Quote:
Originally Posted by John 21:23
So the rumor spead in the community that this disciple would not die. Yet Jesus did not say to him that he would not die, but, "If it is my will that I remian until I come, what is that to you?"
Given the late date for the gospel of John it looks as if the immediacy of Christ's return was causing some doubt perhaps...?

Paula Fredriksen makes the clearest case for how soon Paul expected Christ to return and this was decades before the Gospel of John:

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Originally Posted by Dr. Fredriksen
Christ’s resurrection is evidence for Paul that the End is very near. It is a sign that the final days are not merely “at hand,” but have already arrived. It is upon us, he informs his Corinthian community, that the end of the ages has come (ta tele ton aionon katenteken; I Cor 10:11); “The form of the cosmos is passing away” (7:31).
Nor shall this final period extend indefinitely: Paul expects to live to see the Last Days. He speaks of his hope for the transformation of his present body before death (2 Cor 5:1-5), and in light of his conviction, he even feels it reasonable to urge his congregants to forswear sexual activity, “[for] the appointed time has grown very short” (I Cor 7:26, 29). So near is the End that both Paul and his communities are troubled by the death of believers before Christ’s Second Coming: they did not expect this and do not know what to make of it (I Thes 4:13). So anomalous is a Christian’s dying before Christ returns that Paul suggests such deaths may be punitive: because the Corinthians have celebrated the Eucharist unworthily, he argues, many “are weak and ill, and some have died” (I Cor 11:30). …With Christ’s coming, the “dead in Christ” will then rise, to be joined by those still alive at the Parousia (among whom Paul expects to be, I Thes 4:15). "From Jesus to Christ" p58-59
Any ideas that verse 23 may be seen in this light?
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Old 05-14-2006, 05:52 PM   #8
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Quote:
Originally Posted by dongiovanni1976x
Given that neither the Gospel of Peter nor the Gospel of John bear much similarity with the synoptics but both are named after famous apostles, what are the arguments that Christians employ to support the authorship of the latter and to discredit the former?

If dating the Gospel of Peter typically ranges from 100-130CE whereas the Gospel of John spans the years 90-120CE and we put aside any Gnsotic/Nestorian/Homoean/Nicean conflicts, why is one author authentic and the other considered pseudepigraphical?
:huh:
IIRC, Serapion was the first to declare it heretical due to its allegedly docetic passages. (I thought I would give you a change from the scholarly arguments and provide the "traditional" reason. ).
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Old 05-15-2006, 11:15 AM   #9
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Quote:
Originally Posted by dongiovanni1976x
Andrew, speaking of John 21 has there ever been any investigation into verse 23? It seems very odd, almost as if it was added later or that there was a rumor floating about and the author of John wanted to clear it up...? Just curious..



Given the late date for the gospel of John it looks as if the immediacy of Christ's return was causing some doubt perhaps...?
At face value verse 23 suggests that people expected Christ to return before the death of the 'beloved disciple' and the fact that he eventually did die required explanation.

Andrew Criddle
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Old 05-15-2006, 11:17 AM   #10
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Originally Posted by Vox Veritas
Andrew :wave:

Are you referring to GoP:

I. But of the Jews no man washed his hands, neither did Herod nor any one of his judges: and whereas they would not wash, Pilate rose up. And then Herod the king commanded that the Lord should be taken into their hands, saying unto them: All that I commanded you to do unto him, do ye.

II. Now there stood there Joseph the friend of Pilate and of the Lord, and he, knowing that they were about to crucify him, came unto Pilate and begged the body of Jesus for burial. And Pilate sending unto Herod, begged his body. And Herod said: Brother Pilate, even if none had begged for him, we should have buried him, since also the Sabbath dawneth; for it is written in the law that the sun should not set upon one that hath been slain (murdered).
yes

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