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Old 02-05-2006, 04:00 PM   #21
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Originally Posted by Johnny
While God wouldn’t have anything whatsoever to lose by clearing revealing himself to everyone, skeptics who would accept him if he CLEARLY revealed himself to everyone would have everything to gain if he did so. If no God exists, then it is to be expected that none would ever show up. If a loving God exists, and if he is willing to CLEARLY reveal himself to some people, then it is to be expected that he would be willing to CLEARLY reveal himself to everyone.
Romans 1:19

Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; FOR GOD HATH SHEWED IT UNTO THEM.


What did He show them ? (= everybody).

The next verse:

Verse 20

For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are CLEARLY seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse


IOW, His invisible attributes are clearly reflected in physical reality/creation.

Can't see Him ?

Verse 21 tells you why.

Ray
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Old 02-05-2006, 04:07 PM   #22
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Originally Posted by sharon45
Or more correctly, you reveal you haven't read the bible long enough to understand these presented points.
His points are extreme subjective rhetoric.

Since you agree and I don't your disapproval supports my rightness. Glad I didn't get it.

Johnny is used to debating lightweights like Holding. We theologians don't think we are correct, rather we know we are correct.

Ray Martinez
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Old 02-05-2006, 04:42 PM   #23
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Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic
For some strange reason you mostly take issue with the writings of skeptics. Why is that? What I would like to see is your own refutation of Christianity. How about it? What are your main reasons for opposing Christianity?
It seems that way because this is a forum dominated by skeptics. Most of my bone-picking here is therefore with them, not the relatively few Christians.

But what of my opposing Christianity? Well, I don't really "oppose" it, in the fullest sense of the word. I just recognize the fact that it's almost certainly based on fiction. The odds that Christianity is the one true religion are incredibly small. Why do I think that? Based on evidence--or in this case, lack thereof.

If you'd like to hear some of my anti-Christian rhetoric, here's a short piece I wrote on Synoptics authorship and date:
Quote:
Originally Posted by me
The accepted authentic Pauline Epistles (those being. Romans, 1 &. 2 Corinthians, Galatians, Philippians, possibly Colossians, 1 Thessalonians and Philemon), which are dated to c. 50-60 CE, make no mention of the Gospels. It is, therefore, almost certain that the Synoptics were written down after this time period.

Let's take a moment to address the age of the Apostles at this point. Since Christians believe Jesus died during Pilate's term in office, that means it must have occurred between 26 and 36 CE. The Apostles, since they followed Jesus, were not likely to have been much older than him. Supposing, then, that the Apostles were adults, and that they were no more than five years older than Jesus (who Christians believe was 33 when crucified), this puts their own births between 12 BCE and 20 CE. In 60 CE, therefore, the Apostles' ages would probably be between 40 and 72. By 90 CE, they would have been between 70 and 102--though even the oldest is not likely to have made it past 90 or so.

No clear references to the Gospels occur until c. 130 CE, by Papias, which seems strange given the references to the Pauline Epistles by 1 Clement (c. 95), and Ignatius (c. 110). However, the subject matter of 1 Clement and the unusual circumstances under which Ignatius wrote may explain the silence. Unfortunately, even Papias' testimony is somewhat suspect, as it survives only in a fourth-century quotation.

The Didache quotes the Gospel of Matthew, but calls it the "Gospel of Jesus." Several problems with this reference render it essentially worthless in establishing the date of the Synoptics, but it is a fascinating point of evidence otherwise, because it suggests Matthean authorship was attributed later--and thus erroneously.

In c. 150 CE, Justin of Rome quotes all three Synoptics, calling them the "memoirs of the Apostles." This reference is actually a retelling of a debate supposedly held in c. 135 CE. This suggests that the Synoptics had been written no later than c. 135, and authorship ascribed no later than c. 150 CE. The Apostles, however, would have been long dead by this time, so Justin is unhelpful in confirming tradition.

Internal evidence, namely the reference to the temple's destruction (70 CE), suggests the Gospels were either written or edited after 70 CE. However, it is possible that the reference is only an accident, and that it was included prior to 70 CE. So here we have a probable dating of c. 70-135 CE, and a plausible dating of c. 60-135 CE. How can we narrow this down any further?

Let's now take a look at the order in which the Synoptics were written. Clearly, they drew on one another in some way. The most logical hypothesis is that Mark was written first, and Matthew and Luke some time later. This is based on complex textual analysis I won't reproduce here. In any case, they were probably written years apart, allowing time for each to circulate before the next was written. Mark, therefore, was probably written between 70 and 125 CE, and the latest Synoptic--be it Matthew or Luke--between 80 and 135 CE. As far as I know, any further narrowing is impossible given the evidence.

Unfortunately, the claims of authorship are even more spurious. The Didache, along with the age restrictions of the Apostles, suggests authorship was incorrectly assigned after the Synoptics had been written. No convincing evidence exists to support the traditional Apostolic authorship, leaving the Synoptic Gospels anonymous.
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Old 02-05-2006, 05:13 PM   #24
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Default Apostle Paul's intellectual snare...

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Why God killed the unborn in Sodom, Gomorrah, and Tyre?

The question is accusatory. It presupposes that any answer is an excuse.
Actually, the question presupposes that God did anything of the sort – not to mention that it presupposes that God even exists.

Quote:
The question is ambiguous. It does not indicate whether it is seeking to know motive, purpose, reason, outcome, or justification.
The above criticism becomes irrelevant when you consider that the original question presupposes the very existence of the sort of vengeful “god� who would destroy Sodom, Gomorrah and Tyre in the first place.

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The question may be impossible to answer. If the question is what motivated God, our knowledge of God's thoughts is limited to what God has told us about those thoughts. If God has not revealed his thoughts, we can only speculate.
Our collective knowledge of “God’s� thoughts is limited to the world’s religious writs which are all self-proclaimed authorities on “God�. And because they are, in fact, self-proclaimed, none of them are independently verified sources of information about “God�… which is why most skeptics reject these sources.

Individually, on the other hand, I believe we might each gain personal knowledge of an omnipresent and omniscient intelligence pervading the universe (IMHO). This ‘intelligence’ would not exhibit such human traits as vengeance, anger, or favoritism toward any so-called “Chosen People�.

Quote:
God ordered the children of Israel to kill every man, woman, and child in the promise land/Palestine.
Nonsense. The Bible claims that “God� ordered the children of Israel to kill every man, woman, and child in the promise land/Palestine because the children of Israel apparently admit to having killed every man, woman, and child in the promise land/Palestine…. AND they apparently sought to justify this behavior by writing about it and claiming that what they’ve written was inspired by “God�.

Quote:
Whatever God does or says is righteous.
Do you know why He did this ?
(I do) - Ray Martinez
Correction – you, Ray M., think you know why “God� did this because you appear to believe that what is written in the Bible was actually inspired by “God�. I happen to believe that what is written in the Bible is, and always has been, completely unsubstantiated religious mythology.

Quote:
IOW, His (“God’s�) invisible attributes are clearly reflected in physical reality/creation.
Can't see Him ?
(Romans Ch 1) Verse 21 tells you why.
Ray
OK...Romans CH1:21: "Because that, when they knew God, they glorified him not as God, neither were thankful; but became vain in their imaginations, and their foolish heart was darkened."

I take this verse to mean that anyone who observes the world around him/her and does not then recognize “God� and does not therefore glorify “God� and does not then thank “God� has a “foolish� and “darkened� heart.

This concept is quite similar to that in which Paul also attempts to create an impossible “catch-22� by warning his readers that anyone “prudent� who finds anything that is written in the Bible “foolish� must therefore not be inspired by the Holy Spirit, and is therefore not “saved�. A well-written analysis of this manipulative ideological trickery can be found here (excerpt below the link):

http://www.deism.com/thinksam2.htm

Quote:
In Paul's apologetics, he cleverly anticipated and headed off any objections or reservations that waverers might have; and once netted, sought to keep them that way. Paul's arguments have been the staple of proselytizers for two millennia now. Although the illogic of these arguments is apparent to the rational, they become more and more effective and compelling, the deeper one succumbs to the Christian line. In combination they make Christianity into a virtually escape-proof mental trap.
First and foremost is the heavy emphasis on faith, as in Romans 1:17 & 4:5. Jesus hardly stressed faith at all, but it was Paul's primary mantra. Now why God would insist that we believe a particular quizzical story in the complete absence of proof, and make that the fundamental test of our existence, defies all explanation. The impossibility of proof provides the answer, since faith makes the tricky matter of proof seemingly irrelevant. And to require proof would evidence a lack of faith, thus placing one in imminent peril.
When propagating a religion where proof is not available, one that contains logical absurdities, it is essential that the logical processes of the mind be short-circuited. Paul attempted this with his facile quips, "The wisdom of the world is foolishness with God." (I Cor. 3:19), and "The foolishness of God is wiser than men." (I Cor. 1:25). This summarily rejects all logical quandaries as if they're of no consequence, and saves the trouble of having to explain them away. We are merely to trust that, as I Cor. 2:14 informs us, "But the natural man receiveth not the things of the spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, for they are spiritually discerned." In other words, you're incapable of understanding the "truth" of their doctrines because you're working with a sinful, carnal mind, rather than a spiritual one. Once you give up and give in, then you'll understand. This inverts the process of knowing from "see it to believe it" to "believe it, then you'll see it." But should one expect to gain real knowledge subsequently, Paul crushes that by informing us "his ways [are] past finding out!" (Romans 11:33) So don't even try--just comply.
Having been predicated upon Biblical writs that are illogical and unsubstantiated in the first place, that question which assumes that "God" killed anyone is unfounded.
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Old 02-05-2006, 05:19 PM   #25
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We theologians don't think we are correct, rather we know we are correct.
Ray Martinez
I'm happy for you... you are so comfortable and secure in your little intellectual womb of theology... but, how exactly do you know you are correct?

Let me guess... you are going to tell me that you know because you believe the Bible, and "the Bible tells me so".
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Old 02-05-2006, 10:09 PM   #26
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Originally Posted by Heidi Guedel
Nonsense. The Bible claims that “God� ordered the children of Israel to kill every man, woman, and child in the promise land/Palestine because the children of Israel apparently admit to having killed every man, woman, and child in the promise land/Palestine…. AND they apparently sought to justify this behavior by writing about it and claiming that what they’ve written was inspired by “God�.
Ahem. Actually what is more likely was that the people in Judah were feeling small and powerless compared with mighty kingdoms such as Assyria and Babylon so they made up a story in which their ancestors wiped out whole cities at their God's command. Archaeology does not support a conquest like the one described in Joshua.
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Old 02-05-2006, 10:54 PM   #27
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Originally Posted by WILLOWTREE
God ordered the children of Israel to kill every man, woman, and child in the promise land/Palestine.

Whatever God does or says is righteous.

Do you know why He did this ?

(I do)
To be in further contradiction with himself, which is not at all righteous no matter how much the circular argument tries to make it so.
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Old 02-05-2006, 10:54 PM   #28
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Originally Posted by WILLOWTREE
IOW, His invisible attributes are clearly reflected in physical reality/creation.

Can't see Him ?

Verse 21 tells you why.
Verse 21-32 just reveal more misanthropy from paul.
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Old 02-05-2006, 10:55 PM   #29
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Originally Posted by WILLOWTREE
His points are extreme subjective rhetoric.

Since you agree and I don't your disapproval supports my rightness. Glad I didn't get it.
This is an interesting course to present as logical: glad to be ignorant.

Quote:
Originally Posted by WILLOWTREE
Johnny is used to debating lightweights like Holding. We theologians don't think we are correct, rather we know we are correct.
Another circular argument.
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Old 02-05-2006, 10:56 PM   #30
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Originally Posted by hatsoff
It seems that way because this is a forum dominated by skeptics. Most of my bone-picking here is therefore with them, not the relatively few Christians.
Well with christianity, I am not a skeptic because there simply is no such thing.
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