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Old 02-17-2009, 03:53 PM   #1
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Question A new question, really I don't think its been queried

I cannot imagine that this query has not been dealt with but i just noticed

...neither human resources, nor imperial generosity, nor appeasement of the gods, eliminated the sinister suspicion that the fire had been deliberately started. To stop the rumour, Nero, made scapegoats --and punished with every refinement the notoriously depraved Christians (as they were popularly called). Their originator, Christ, had been executed in Tiberius' reign by the Procurator of Judea, Pontius Pilatus . But in spite of this temporary setback, the deadly superstition had broken out again, not just in Judea (where the mischief had started) but even in Rome

'Nero made scapegoats'

Perhaps someone can inform me if this is either a poor translation of a Latin term or a borrowing of a jewish one. In which case would that not be odd?
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Old 02-17-2009, 04:17 PM   #2
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Originally Posted by jules? View Post
I cannot imagine that this query has not been dealt with but i just noticed

...neither human resources, nor imperial generosity, nor appeasement of the gods, eliminated the sinister suspicion that the fire had been deliberately started. To stop the rumour, Nero, made scapegoats --and punished with every refinement the notoriously depraved Christians (as they were popularly called). Their originator, Christ, had been executed in Tiberius' reign by the Procurator of Judea, Pontius Pilatus . But in spite of this temporary setback, the deadly superstition had broken out again, not just in Judea (where the mischief had started) but even in Rome

'Nero made scapegoats'

Perhaps someone can inform me if this is either a poor translation of a Latin term or a borrowing of a jewish one. In which case would that not be odd?
Excellent question, jules. Sharp wits.

The Latin is Nero subdidit reos. Both subdidit (subdo) and reos (res) are good Latin words. The phrase means something like laid the guilt, and I think there is a falseness implied. Tacitus uses this phrase elsewhere.

The translation is not bad; it is just a bit colloquial.

Ben.
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Old 02-17-2009, 04:31 PM   #3
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Dear jules?

Arthur Drews answered your questions and dealt unfavorably with the insubstantial Neronian evidence as it relates to "chrestus" et al almost a century ago. Have a look at his treatment in "Witnesses to the Historicity of Jesus" (1912).

Best wishes,


Pete
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Old 02-18-2009, 01:20 AM   #4
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Brilliant!

thanks.
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