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Old 08-28-2004, 08:38 PM   #31
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Nice talking to you.


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Likewise spin but I just can't see how you people can get so worked up over nothing.
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Old 08-28-2004, 09:26 PM   #32
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Originally Posted by WILLOWTREE
IF He rose from the dead as He claimed He would then it is a big deal.

This fact (if true) would give legitimacy to the claims.
Why would God choose to give "legitimacy" to such a "big deal" by having it take place unobserved?

Seems like more legitimacy would be given to such a big deal by making sure the resurrection was directly witnessed by tons of people.
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Old 08-28-2004, 11:15 PM   #33
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They believed one simple creed: God was in Christ - period.

Jesus claimed Divinity - so what.

IF He rose from the dead as He claimed He would then it is a big deal.

This fact (if true) would give legitimacy to the claims.

When Jesus cried out aloud as to why God had forsaken Him - He was inadvertedly evidencing the reality of what He was doing: Paying the price of affliction for the sins of the world.

God did forsake Jesus during those three hours on the cross.

During that time Jesus was the object of God's wrath for sins.

It was an honest statement by Jesus proving the wrath of God upon Him for the sins of the world.
If Jesus was divine, how could Jesus have had the wrath of God upon Him?

Why would God forsake somebody in their hour of need, especially somebody who had a perfect relationship with God?
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Old 08-29-2004, 02:12 AM   #34
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Originally Posted by prometheus fr
If this part of Jesus' words was mistranlated into Greek then what other parts did the Gospels' authors got wrong? Maybe Matt 19:19 is not about loving one's enemies but rather about raping them...
There appear to be more than a few instances of mistranslations most very small.


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Originally Posted by prometheus fr
BTW, the oldest Pehitta Aramaic manuscripts only date back to the 5th century. And many modern Aramaic versions are in fact translations from Greek into Aramaic (Jacobite Peshitta). Link.
Yes into the fourth century there were some theological differences between the "nestorians" in persia and the mainly greek speaking byzantine believers. As a result although the eastern peshitta was always around the Aramaic speaking byzantine believers retranslated the NT from greek into aramaic to bring it more into line theologically.
From memory Rabbula did one, Thomas of harkel did another, Philoxus (?) did one as well. however there does not seem to be any clear evidence that the eastern peshitta is from the greek. It appears to be the other way around.

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Eli, eli lama sabachtani is a mixture of Hebrew and Aramaic. And in Aramaic, sabachtani means "forsaken".
Actually it is all Aramaic, no need to mention hebrew.
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Old 08-29-2004, 04:28 AM   #35
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however there does not seem to be any clear evidence that the eastern peshitta is from the greek. It appears to be the other way around.
Evidence for that?
The earliest known NT manuscripts are in Greek and predate the earliest known Aramaic manuscripts by about 200 years.

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There appear to be more than a few instances of mistranslations most very small.
Very small? How do we know that they're all very small? We may not have spotted all the mistranslations. As I said, if some of Jesus's words were mistranslated into Greek then that casts a doubt on the other translated passages.

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Actually it is all Aramaic, no need to mention hebrew.
Is Eli ("my God") Aramaic?
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Old 08-29-2004, 04:59 AM   #36
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Default My God, My God why hast....

none of you taken the trouble to look at my Allegro references?!

from where i am stting, you seem to love wearing blinkers about such 'problems' as this. maybe this is what turns you on...god knows
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Old 08-29-2004, 05:54 AM   #37
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none of you taken the trouble to look at my Allegro references?!

from where i am stting, you seem to love wearing blinkers about such 'problems' as this. maybe this is what turns you on...god knows
I'm impressed that you still have a copy of Mushroom, the book which made Allegro a joke in the scholarly community. Allegro was a good responsible Hebrew scholar, until he was ostracized by the scrolls squad, which ruined his career. The Mushroom didn't help things much other than his pocket. It's the sort of free association one finds with people trying to convince you that the Danes are really the tribe of Dan or that the Britons were the people of the covenant (amme ha-brit).


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Old 08-29-2004, 06:08 AM   #38
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being invisible. it means you can sneak in and pinch peoples handbags....tee hee
A good way to avoid being overlooked is to quote something someone has said, and take exception to all or parts of it. If you don’t challenge someone like that they won’t feel as inclined to respond to your post.

(Hmmm, thats an ugly comma in the first sentence isn’t it?)
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Old 08-30-2004, 01:53 PM   #39
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N.T. times did not have trinitarian controversies.
As far as I am aware, the doctrine of the Trinity didn't formally become part of Church theology until the fourth century, and before then was very much a subject of controversy.
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Old 08-30-2004, 03:19 PM   #40
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Originally Posted by Prometheus_fr
Is Eli ("my God") Aramaic?
Hi, Prometheus.

To my knowledge most scholars agree that Matthew's "Eli" represents the Hebrew original (while Mark's "Eloi" an Aramaic original), nevertheless it has been noted by others that perhaps even Matthew's represents Aramaic: the Targum to Psalm 22:1 (written in Aramaic) has "Eli."
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