Freethought & Rationalism Archive

Solo · 05-13-2008, 10:06 AM

Mark's frequent use of the adverb 'eutheo' (immediately, at once,...etc) has been noted by many NT scholars especially in a conjunctive function (with kai). Has there been any discussion on the subject or speculation as to why Mark might have been overusing the word (the count is 40) in his text ? (eg. to 'add a dramatic effect', or to 'speed up' the narration for slow readers

, or 'mimicking someone' ) Or is this generally considered the writer's idiosyncracy ?

Much obliged to the Greek experts here.

Jiri

karlmarx · 05-13-2008, 09:02 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Solo

Mark's frequent use of the adverb 'eutheo' (immediately, at once,...etc) has been noted by many NT scholars especially in a conjunctive function (with kai). Has there been any discussion on the subject or speculation as to why Mark might have been overusing the word (the count is 40) in his text ? (eg. to 'add a dramatic effect', or to 'speed up' the narration for slow readers

, or 'mimicking someone' ) Or is this generally considered the writer's idiosyncracy ?

Much obliged to the Greek experts here.

Jiri

Since no-one's answered yet, I'll mention the play on words, "Good God". Sorry if that's obvious!

Solo · 05-14-2008, 12:01 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by karlmarx

Quote:

Originally Posted by Solo

Mark's frequent use of the adverb 'eutheo' (immediately, at once,...etc) has been noted by many NT scholars especially in a conjunctive function (with kai). Has there been any discussion on the subject or speculation as to why Mark might have been overusing the word (the count is 40) in his text ? (eg. to 'add a dramatic effect', or to 'speed up' the narration for slow readers

, or 'mimicking someone' ) Or is this generally considered the writer's idiosyncracy ?

Much obliged to the Greek experts here.

Jiri

Since no-one's answered yet, I'll mention the play on words, "Good God". Sorry if that's obvious!

Unfortunately, it is not obvious to me at all.

Jiri

Toto · 05-14-2008, 12:20 PM

Eu- is a prefix that generally means "good" and theo is, of course, a form of "god." I don't know that this would occur to any Greek speaker, but it has occured to teenage English speakers before (here.)

Jeffrey Gibson · 05-14-2008, 12:33 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Solo

Mark's frequent use of the adverb 'eutheo' (immediately, at once,...etc) has been noted by many NT scholars especially in a conjunctive function (with kai). Has there been any discussion on the subject or speculation as to why Mark might have been overusing the word (the count is 40) in his text ? (eg. to 'add a dramatic effect', or to 'speed up' the narration for slow readers

, or 'mimicking someone' ) Or is this generally considered the writer's idiosyncracy ?

Much obliged to the Greek experts here.

Jiri

There is no adverb eutheo in Mark or (to my knowledge) anywhere else. Do you mean εὐθύς or εὐθ�*ως? If so, you might want to look at D. Daube's The Sudden in the Scriptures and the detailed work on Mark's vocabulary that was done by C.H. Turner in JTS xxv-xxix (1924-28) and Black's Aramaic Approach to the Gospels and Acts. J. Weiss,"εὐθύς bei Markus ZNW 11, 1910, 124-33 discusses its Markan usage. So does Theissen, Miracle Stories, 199 and R Pesch on pp. 18–19, 89–90 of Volume 1 of his comemntary on Mark. See too Rod Decker's discussion "εὐθύς" from his "Temporal Deixis of the Greek Verb in the Gospel of Mark with Reference to Verbal Aspect" available here.

The count is 41 according to Vincent Taylor.

Jeffrey

Jeffrey Gibson · 05-14-2008, 12:43 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Toto

Eu- is a prefix that generally means "good" and theo is, of course, a form of "god." I don't know that this would occur to any Greek speaker, but it has occured to teenage English speakers before (here.)

Fine and dandy except for the fact that there's no "theo" in the adverb that Jiri is speaking of. Moreover the adverb that he is speaking of, i.e., εὐθύς, is formed from the adjective εὐθύς, εῖα, ύ, Ion. and Ep. ἰθύς = "straight, direct" (as is εὐθ�*ως).

Jeffrey

Clivedurdle · 05-14-2008, 02:28 PM

Might not this be a way of tracking an author? Look for other works that use similar expressions?

Solo · 05-14-2008, 02:31 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jeffrey Gibson

Quote:

Originally Posted by Solo

Mark's frequent use of the adverb 'eutheo' (immediately, at once,...etc) has been noted by many NT scholars especially in a conjunctive function (with kai). Has there been any discussion on the subject or speculation as to why Mark might have been overusing the word (the count is 40) in his text ? (eg. to 'add a dramatic effect', or to 'speed up' the narration for slow readers

, or 'mimicking someone' ) Or is this generally considered the writer's idiosyncracy ?

Much obliged to the Greek experts here.

Jiri

There is no adverb eutheo in Mark or (to my knowledge) anywhere else. Do you mean εὐθύς or εὐθ�*ως? If so, you might want to look at D. Daube's The Sudden in the Scriptures and the detailed work on Mark's vocabulary that was done by C.H. Turner in JTS xxv-xxix (1924-28) and Black's Aramaic Approach to the Gospels and Acts. J. Weiss,"εὐθύς bei Markus ZNW 11, 1910, 124-33 discusses its Markan usage. So does Theissen, Miracle Stories, 199 and R Pesch on pp. 18–19, 89–90 of Volume 1 of his comemntary on Mark. See too Rod Decker's discussion "εὐθύς" from his "Temporal Deixis of the Greek Verb in the Gospel of Mark with Reference to Verbal Aspect" available here.

The count is 41 according to Vincent Taylor.

Jeffrey

ευθεως... Thanks, Jeffrey.. embarrassing mistake

Jiri

Jeffrey Gibson · 05-14-2008, 02:49 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Solo

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jeffrey Gibson

There is no adverb eutheo in Mark or (to my knowledge) anywhere else. Do you mean εὐθύς or εὐθ�*ως? If so, you might want to look at D. Daube's The Sudden in the Scriptures and the detailed work on Mark's vocabulary that was done by C.H. Turner in JTS xxv-xxix (1924-28) and Black's Aramaic Approach to the Gospels and Acts. J. Weiss,"εὐθύς bei Markus ZNW 11, 1910, 124-33 discusses its Markan usage. So does Theissen, Miracle Stories, 199 and R Pesch on pp. 18–19, 89–90 of Volume 1 of his comemntary on Mark. See too Rod Decker's discussion "εὐθύς" from his "Temporal Deixis of the Greek Verb in the Gospel of Mark with Reference to Verbal Aspect" available here.

The count is 41 according to Vincent Taylor.

Jeffrey

ευθεως... Thanks, Jeffrey..

Jiri

But be aware that Mark prefers εὐθύς not ευθεως. In fact ευθεως appears only once in his Gospel, at 7.35, and even its appearance there is not all that certain since it is not at all well attested. Sinaticus, B, D, L Delta and other MSS lack it.

Jeffrey

Toto · 05-14-2008, 03:06 PM

I have edited the title.

05-13-2008, 10:06 AM	#1
Solo Veteran Member Join Date: Oct 2004 Location: Ottawa, Canada Posts: 2,579	Mark's overuse of 'εὐθύς' 'euthus' Mark's frequent use of the adverb 'eutheo' (immediately, at once,...etc) has been noted by many NT scholars especially in a conjunctive function (with kai). Has there been any discussion on the subject or speculation as to why Mark might have been overusing the word (the count is 40) in his text ? (eg. to 'add a dramatic effect', or to 'speed up' the narration for slow readers , or 'mimicking someone' ) Or is this generally considered the writer's idiosyncracy ? Much obliged to the Greek experts here. Jiri

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05-14-2008, 12:20 PM	#4
Toto Contributor Join Date: Jun 2000 Location: Los Angeles area Posts: 40,549	Eu- is a prefix that generally means "good" and theo is, of course, a form of "god." I don't know that this would occur to any Greek speaker, but it has occured to teenage English speakers before (here.)

05-14-2008, 02:28 PM	#7
Clivedurdle Contributor Join Date: Mar 2003 Location: London UK Posts: 16,024	Might not this be a way of tracking an author? Look for other works that use similar expressions?

05-14-2008, 03:06 PM	#10
Toto Contributor Join Date: Jun 2000 Location: Los Angeles area Posts: 40,549	I have edited the title.

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