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Old 12-17-2004, 12:10 PM   #1
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Default Question about Acts 13:17-22

Hello all,

I would really appreciate some insight into the inerrantist argument that there are older texts/fragments that show that the speech Paul makes in Acts 13 does NOT contradict 1 Kings 6. (For what I am specifically referring to please see: http://www.tektonics.org/tsr/tsr904.html)

***What is mentioned in Witherington, Acts commentary, 410 that proves this?

***What are the oldest fragments, whether Greek, Syriac or any other do we have?

***What are some of your thoughts on this; I would be very interested to hear from you all.

Thank you :thumbs:
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Old 12-17-2004, 03:11 PM   #2
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Welcome! Can you clarify what you mean? The link to Holding justifies the discrepancy by "spilled ink". Holding is a notorious apologist.

Kings is possibly much later historically and may be a made up history - see the Bible Unearthed.

Why the concern with inerrancy? It is impossible, especially when unknown people have edited it and it has been translated into different times and societies.

We have no backup for Acts as well!
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Old 12-17-2004, 08:04 PM   #3
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Clivedurdle
Welcome! Can you clarify what you mean? The link to Holding justifies the discrepancy by "spilled ink". Holding is a notorious apologist.

Kings is possibly much later historically and may be a made up history - see the Bible Unearthed.

Why the concern with inerrancy? It is impossible, especially when unknown people have edited it and it has been translated into different times and societies.

We have no backup for Acts as well!
Thank you for your reply!
I am basically interested in knowing what this apologist is citing as his source. I have never heard any decent refutation of this obvious contradiction. Regardless, I want to keep abreast of the subject so that I do not make claims that are untrue. If I run into another fundie on the street and they cite page 410 from this book, I would like to be aware of its contents. I am aware that the textus receptus is at most fault here and it may be the Codex Vaticanus and the Codex Sinaiticus' that alter the texual content in Paul's speech. I just want to know what Holding's reference says, and what the most current opinion on the debate is.
My concern with inerrancy is that it is ultimately the key to slowly eroding certain peoples superstitions who are notorious for being deficient when it comes to "comprimise" and ever sense the reelection of our fundie president I feel compelled to be prepared to defend the cause against the tyrannical reign of absolute certainty.
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Old 12-18-2004, 01:03 AM   #4
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Quote:
Originally Posted by dongiovanni1976x
Hello all,

I would really appreciate some insight into the inerrantist argument that there are older texts/fragments that show that the speech Paul makes in Acts 13 does NOT contradict 1 Kings 6. (For what I am specifically referring to please see: http://www.tektonics.org/tsr/tsr904.html)



Thank you :thumbs:
I have seen a couple of rationalisations attempting to make the bible look "inerrant" Here is one which suggests using the Alexandrian text of Acts.

Here is another trying to rationalise the inconsistencies.Here is another which states

Quote:
To reconcile Paul to the text in I Kings it was proposed by some, including Anstey, that the 480 years were not chronological but were the result of summing the years in which there was an Israelite judge. That is, the 480 years represent the number of judgeship years while years of foreign oppression or years without judges were omitted from the total.

Hope these links at least give you some insight into the wascaly twicks of "inerrantists"
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Old 12-18-2004, 01:30 AM   #5
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Quote:
Originally Posted by dongiovanni1976x
. . .
***What is mentioned in Witherington, Acts commentary, 410 that proves this?

. . .
I think the reference is to Witherington's The Acts of the Apostles: A Socio-Rhetorical Commentary

Amazon allows you to view this online. p 410 says:

Quote:
V. 19 continues the positive theme, indicating that God cleared the land of Canaan of severn nations (cf Deut. 7:1) in order to give Israel its interitance "for about 450 years." This would seem to be arrived at by adding 400 years in Egypt to 40 in the wilderness and another 10 for the conquest of the land [211]. V. 20 then refers to the period of the judges up to the time of Samual. We are seeing in this speech a definite attempt at the periodization of history.

. . .

Note 211: The Western text is clearly inferior here, suggesting that there were judges for 450 years! See Beginnings, 4:150-51, but cf Ropes's views in Beginnings, 3:121
Beginnings is Ropes The Beginnings of Christianity, 1926.

I'm not sure what this proves.
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Old 12-18-2004, 11:20 AM   #6
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I would assume the numbers have a spiritual meaning - 450 is seven jubilees for example - that feels very heavy numeroligically!
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Old 12-18-2004, 11:21 AM   #7
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Um 9 Jubilees?
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Old 12-20-2004, 08:41 AM   #8
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Judge, your links were very helpful...especially the one entitled: PUZZLING OUT THE ERA OF THE JUDGES, by James B. Jordan. And Toto, you provided me with exactly the quote I was looking for- thank you.

Anyone know if the Alexandrian text is the scapegoat for the Exodus 12:40 Biblical Contradiction?

e.g.



Gen: 46:1-27 informs us that God commanded Jacob to take himself and his whole family to live in the land of Egypt.

Gen 46:11 States that one of Jacob’s son’s LEVI brought with him his 3 sons Gershon, KOHATH & Merari (from this we can deduce that they were all at least born…that is they were at least 0 yrs old)

Ex 6:18 reveals to us that Kohath lived to be 133 yrs old

Ex 6:20 states that Amram, Kohath’s son, lived to be 137 yrs old.

Amram was the father of Moses and we know Moses lived to be 120 yrs old. The last 40 years of Moses’ life were spent wandering in the desert. So therefore Moses led the Israelites out of Egypt when he was 80 years old.

If this is the case, and we add up the years of Moses (80) + his father Amram (137) + Kohath (133) we get a MAXIMUM total of 350.

For safe measure let us assume that Kohath left with his father Levi & grandfather Jacob when he was in his mothers womb which will add 9mos. Also let us assume that the last thing he did before he died was to sire his son Amram & Amram follows suit by waiting until his death-bed to sleep with his wife to produce Moses.

However unlikely, if this was the case, the maximum ‘sojourn in Egypt’ could be no more than 353 years (most probably it was less than half this long).

How then is Exodus 12:40 possible?


“Now the sojourning of the children of Israel, who dwelt in Egypt, [was] four hundred and thirty years.
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