Freethought & Rationalism Archive

DCHindley · 10-27-2009, 08:27 AM

Strictly speaking, it means "nation" or "people" or "tribe," i.e., a distinct grouping of people with some sort of common bond. Sometimes it is used for "all nations" (including the Jewish one), but often when used by Jews it means "other nations" (beside the Jewish one).

For the most part, I'd say the translation that uses "nations" when EQNH is used in the plural, or "gentile" (a member of a nation which is NOT the Jewish nation) when singular. I'm sure there are exceptions, though.

DCH (lunch, boss)

Quote:

Originally Posted by Joan of Bark

Quote:

Jews from old acknowledged that there are many "nations" around, but believed that God chose them as his special or favored nation. In the OT it has a meaning something like "those other nations".

In the NT it means something like "all nations" as they came to believe that the favor of God has now been extended to all nations, not just the Jewish one, on account of the death and resurrection of Jesus.

Those translations that use "heathen" and "pagan" are by Christian sects who believe that Christianity has superseded the Jews as the chosen ones of god, but also want to imply that God disfavors all but the "Christian" nation.

So which translation do you believe to be more accurate? If it is Gentiles, I take that to mean that Peter was implying that the "Christians" were all Jews (or are you saying that the word had changed in meaning, therefore this is an outdated reading?). If "heathen" or "pagan" is more accurate, then there were probably non-Jews already in this new sect of Christianity.

andrewcriddle · 10-27-2009, 01:01 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Joan of Bark

Maybe I'm missing something, but verse 3 doesn't necessarily indicate to me that it must refer to an ex-anything. Couldn't you also interpret it as Peter chiding Jews for behaving like pagans / Gentiles?

In verse 4 the Gentiles/Pagans are apparently surprised at the Christians not behaving like Gentiles/Pagans. This implies to me that at least some of the Christians used to be Gentiles/Pagans and aren't just lapsed Jews returning to their roots.

Andrew Criddle

Joan of Bark · 10-27-2009, 07:37 PM

Okay, I'll continue to think about it. On a related note, Andrew, do you think Jesus was always preaching to Gentiles, or did he change tactics later in his short ministry, or was it Paul who changed Christian tactics to target non-Jews?

andrewcriddle · 10-28-2009, 03:58 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Joan of Bark

On a related note, Andrew, do you think Jesus was always preaching to Gentiles, or did he change tactics later in his short ministry, or was it Paul who changed Christian tactics to target non-Jews?

I don't think Jesus ever deliberately tried to preach to Gentiles. However the Gospels indicate that when Gentiles took the initiative Jesus was ready to respond.

Andrew Criddle

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10-27-2009, 07:37 PM	#13
Joan of Bark Veteran Member Join Date: Jan 2005 Location: Pua, in northern Thailand Posts: 2,823	Okay, I'll continue to think about it. On a related note, Andrew, do you think Jesus was always preaching to Gentiles, or did he change tactics later in his short ministry, or was it Paul who changed Christian tactics to target non-Jews?

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