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06-30-2004, 09:11 PM | #1 |
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Jesus is God, not just the "Son of God"
I've heard some funny apologetics claiming that Jesus wasn't God. He was only the Son of God
Because of this, I thought I'd clear up the situation for those who would like to refute such a claim, or possibly for those Christians who believe that Jesus was God. Jesus + Father + Holy Ghost = God (According to the Trinity) AND Jesus + Father = God (I and my Father are one) And if you can take away one (HG) and get the same result, I see no reason why you couldn't take away another one (Father) and get the same result again. i.e. Jesus = God So did Jesus ever SAY "I am God?" No, but this gives reason to believe that the Bible intended to present him as such. Naturally, I make no claim that Jesus ever even existed. I speak merely from the Biblical standpoint, just like I would stand from a Trekkie standpoint to defend something like, "Vulcan's can't lie" And no, I'm not a Trekkie |
06-30-2004, 10:00 PM | #2 | |
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The descend of the HS united Jesus with the HS, so really, the trinity was resolved when Jesus spoke these words, yet only Jesus the Jew was crucified and not Jesus the son of God who was one with the father (and his mother because the descend of the HG indicates this). Jesus did ask Peter, "who do you think I am" and that was a good indication that Jesus was more than what the people knew him to be. |
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06-30-2004, 11:29 PM | #3 |
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That is not logical
Mathematically speaking, If ;
(1) Jesus + Father + HS = God (abbreviate these as J,F,HS,G respectively) and we assume that J=G and F=G and HS=G, then by substitution, we have ; G + G + G = G or 3G = G This is illogical (violation of the law of equality), except when G=0. Thus, the only possible solution is G=0. This also implies that J=0, F=0, and HS=0. Another possibility, is to define the trinity as 3 parts of one god, which would properly be expressed mathematically as ; (2) G/3 + G/3 + G/3 = G since by definition, J = G/3, F = G/3 and HS = G/3. The implication is that each has only 1/3 of the total of god. In either case, this is a peculiar idea. Of course, the polytheistic mathematical interpretation would be ; (3) J + F + HS = 3G While (2) and (3) are logical statements, (1) is only conditionally true, or true for only one possible case or initial condition (when G=0) |
07-01-2004, 12:30 AM | #4 | |
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07-01-2004, 12:49 AM | #5 |
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Um, I just noticed this doesn't have any Biblical Criticism in it, since the Trinity is not in the Bible.
I'll kick it over to GRD |
07-01-2004, 04:25 AM | #6 | |
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I have seen one Christian apologetics site argue that because the word "one" is neuter (hen), it means "one thing" and therefore one substance. If so, then human Christians are also one thing and one substance. |
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07-01-2004, 06:09 AM | #7 | |
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In short, it seems the earliest accounts of Jesus portray Him as an ordinary human through whom God can be seen and experienced. Later accounts show Him as a miracle-worker and an incarnation of God, who was born of a virgin and was physically resurrected after His crucifixion. The later the account, the more inseparable the Son's identity is from the Father's. |
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07-02-2004, 07:30 AM | #8 | |
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In particular, this argument fails to take account of the Platonic base of later trinitarian thinking. To take account of this one would have to redefine G as not "God" but rather the "Form that is God" and F, J and HS would have to each be identified as an instance of the Form. Or, more precisely, F, J and HS would not equal G as much as they would participate in the essence of the Form. I do not think that you presented a disproof of the trinity as much you have demonstrated how one needs to think in Platonic terms in order to make sense of what the Nicene and Cappadocian fathers were saying. Really, the problem here is that this argumentation is trying to understand the doctrine of the trinity in ways that are totally foreign to the way of thinking of those who formulated it - in that case, no surprise that the trinity cannot be expressed in this idiom, thus appearing as an impossibility. However, this presupposes that this mathematical idiom is the highest form of knowledge - however can you demonstrate that without reference to the mathematical idiom in which you are arguing? In short can you demonstrate why I should prefer your mathematical approach to the trinity over the Platonic approach favoured by the Nicene and Cappadocian fathers? |
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07-02-2004, 08:27 AM | #9 |
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I don't think the Trinity is ever mentioned in the Bible. It's a doctrine of some forms of Christianity, but not all. Mormons are non-trinitarian, for example.
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07-02-2004, 10:57 AM | #10 | |
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