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05-07-2006, 01:53 AM | #1 |
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gnosticism and neo-pythagoreanism
What elements exist in the writings and philosophies of gnosticism
(with respect to biblical studies) that are not already present in the writings and philosophies of neo-pythagoreanism, which I consider (for the sake of this discussion) to subsume those of neo-platonism. If no unique elements distinguish "the gnostics" (aside from anything related to christianity) from "the neo-pythagoreans", why the separate term "gnostics"? Thanks for any illumination of this subject. Pete Brown http://www.mountainman.com.au/namaste_2006.htm NAMASTE: “The spirit in me honours the spirit in you” |
05-07-2006, 05:10 AM | #2 |
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What is "gnosticism" sheared of everything Christian?
What is "neo-pythagoreanism"? Wouldn't asking these questions be the first and proper step to an understanding of any possible relationship or difference? regards, Peter Kirby |
05-07-2006, 06:53 AM | #3 | |
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have been previously researched. Do you think that is an unreasonable implication? namaste Pete Brown |
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05-07-2006, 07:11 AM | #4 |
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I believe gnostic views were very close to theirs indeed. It is just that "gnostics" use slightly different terminology and believe Jesus was the messenger that came to tell them of the spiritual world.
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05-07-2006, 08:36 AM | #5 | |
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Or was this identification (gnostic) enacted after the event by an historian? Why didn't they identify themselves with the "tribe of (neo-)pythagoreans"? I dont have answers for these questions. Can you suggest any possible answers? Many thanks, Pete Brown |
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05-07-2006, 09:03 AM | #6 | ||
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The Dictionary of New Testament Background has some very interesting information on Gnosticism if you can find it at a library. |
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05-07-2006, 07:47 PM | #7 | |||
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HE Book 4 It appears that Eusebius gathers the gnostics together in order to calumnify them via herecies. It is evident from this reference that the Pythagorean influence exists in this "tribe of heretics". Quote:
However, my reasons for associating the neo-platonists and the neo-pythoreans are as follows: 1) Plato himself acknowleges Pythagoras as his "teacher". 2) Many so-called Neo-Platonists wrote extensively about Pythagoras (eg: Iamblichus) 3) Simplification of a categorisation system for the authors of antiquity. I have attempted to categorise all (biblical study relevent) authors of antiquity in a color-coded table as this web page: http://www.mountainman.com.au/essenes/article_029.htm Roman Emperors get to have the purple. Neo-Pythagoraeans (& neoplatonists) have the green. Historians (neutral) get to have the yellow. Christian Bishops get to be coded in the RED. Other christians authors are colorless white. The idea is an attempt to establish the evolution of these separate "tribes of antiquity" over the period in question. The similarity between the neopythagoreans and the nep- platonists for this purpose I think lends weight to the argument to categorise them together, under the more ancient tribal name. Quote:
next time I travel into civilisation, and to its reading on this issue. A final (and very speculative) question: Is it reasonable to conclude that the term "gnostic" is itself another Eusebian Tell, by which he gathers together the tribe of neopythagoreans (and neoplatonists) and assembles them to be calumnified to history via herecies. Pete Brown http://www.mountainman.com.au/namaste_2006.htm NAMASTE: “The spirit in me honours the spirit in you” |
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05-07-2006, 08:14 PM | #8 | |
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Moreover, if they had been previously researched (which they have--if not perhaps in the way that you expect), that research may have been incomplete, of varying conclusions, or simply not what you are assuming for your own purposes. So laying out your own explanation based on your own research is the only reasonable way to approach talking about what "gnosticism" and "neopythagoreanism" may have differences in as categories. regards, Peter Kirby |
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05-08-2006, 03:26 AM | #9 |
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If Eusebius constructed gnosticism and then their history they were truly f'ed in the Albigensian Crusades! Set up an enemy and then destroy them!
(See my post on gnosticism in GT thread). |
05-08-2006, 03:52 PM | #10 | |||
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and specified prior to a possible subsequent step of comparison. However, if one finds little outward difference between two objects, such as an apple and an apple, it could be that they are essentially similar, and the most expedient process of making a comparison is to list their differences. This one has a worm hole at polar coordinate 44,55 and the other apple is worm-free, etc. But even if you have an apple and an orange, the method of sequential processing is not invalid, and in such one step (the identification of the elements of apples and oranges) I consider to be a precursor step in the task of making a comparison. If you can handle the job in parallel, then you can call the steps concommitant. People sometimes operate differently and use different steps to get to the same place. Quote:
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were referred to as neoplatonists and neopythagoreans. In fact, as I mentioned above, seens as "tribes", it is obvious (to me anyway), that the "tribe of platonists" is descended from the "tribe of pythagoreans" that there methods of teaching, their writings and subject matter, were invariably strikingly similar. Such is the similarity found in my research I find that the actual assessment of an apple vs orange comparison to be inappropriate. It seems like comparing an apple to apple or an orange to an orange, aside from probably a small set of exceptions, which are not deemed critical enough to effect the finding of equivalence between these. This begs the question, were these two tribes (the neo-platonists and the neo-pythagoreans) associated by Eusebius as a new and strange tribe which he called the "gnostics", and which he then reports calumnified by herecy. Is this reasonable? You best expressed this possibility when you said earlier What is "gnosticism" sheared of everything Christian? What is "neo-pythagoreanism"? What is "gnosticism" but neo-platonism sheared of everything christian, which is essentially the same as neo-pythagoreanism. Is this using far too broad a brush? Best wishes, Pete Brown |
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