FRDB Archives

Freethought & Rationalism Archive

The archives are read only.


Go Back   FRDB Archives > Archives > Religion (Closed) > Biblical Criticism & History
Welcome, Peter Kirby.
You last visited: Today at 03:12 PM

 
 
Thread Tools Search this Thread
Old 03-01-2005, 11:41 AM   #21
Regular Member
 
Join Date: Jul 2004
Location: Romania
Posts: 453
Default

I know that a bunch of arguments seem to indicate that book of Daniel was written in the Maccabean period but I have this argument against it:

How would Daniel know of Belshazzar, the regent while Nabonidus was away, as last king of Babylon, since this knowledge is of recent date, since the discovery of some babylonian chronicles. All the ancients knew that Nabonidus was the last king of Babylon, only Daniel stated otherwise and the recent findings support him!
Lafcadio is offline  
Old 03-01-2005, 11:44 AM   #22
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2001
Location: UK
Posts: 5,815
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jim Larmore
Biblical critics say its impossible to tell which decree to start with since there was more than one. I contend the only one that counts is the one that really made the restoration and building happen and thats 457 B.C. . This decree was made by Artaxerxes in the 1st month and the 7th year of his reign. Since we know Artaxerxes came to power in 464 B.C. then the decree happened in the spring of 457 B.C. He not only made the decree but he put the financial backing to make it happen i.e. Ezra 7:12-22.

Now we need to figure out how long seven weeks; and three score and two weeks are. Well a week is seven days so 7 weeks; and three score and two weeks is 69 weeks times 7 = 483 days.

If we take this as a day for a year we come to 27 A.D. the exact time Jesus started his ministry.
Why should we do anything so weird?

If we simply read what the author wrote, we get somewhat more than a year later. You reject this because you don't like the result.

If you're going to change the units, you might as well follow the Bible's "a thousand years is as a day" guideline and turn those 483 days into 483,000 years...
Quote:
Like I said there is a lot of debate over which is the right year but to be honest to even get within a couple years is amazing considering this prophecy was written over 500 years before. I don't believe in what the critics claim, I have solid evidence that the Bible is 100% correct.
You didn't, and it wasn't. And how would one example, even if true, demonstrate that the Bible is 100% correct?
Quote:
It kind of disintergrated into ten little kingdoms many of which became the countries of western Europe we have today. These tribes were the Franks ( France ) , the Suevi ( Portugal ) , the Alamanni ( Germany ) , the Visogoths ( Spain ) , the Burgundians ( Switzerland ) , the Anglo-Saxons ( English ) , the Lombards ( Italy ) , this is seven and there were three more that became extinct in short order by this little horn power. They were the Ostrogoths, the Vandals and the Heruli.
The Anglo-Saxons weren't in England when the Romans left. They came from places like, well, Saxony. I'm sure others can point out problems in your "ten kingdoms" scenario too.
Quote:
Now the prophecy said he would have the saints in his hand for a time and times and a dividing of times i.e. Dan 7:25

If we look at the hebrew a time is a year which is 360 days long times is two years which is 720 days long, a dividing of times is one half of a year of 180 days long, ,,, add this up:
720
360
180
----
1260 days or prophetic years.
Good grief. Surely you're not serious...
Quote:
History validates we take a day for a year in this prophecy, and indeed this is supported Biblically in Ezek4:6 and Numbers 14:34.
It gets worse! Ezekiel 4:6 "And when thou hast accomplished them, lie again on thy right side, and thou shalt bear the iniquity of the house of Judah forty days: I have appointed thee each day for a year." This is plainly a period of penance: one day of penance for each year of iniquity. The same applies to Numbers 14:34. Talk about "out of context"...
Jack the Bodiless is offline  
Old 03-01-2005, 11:46 AM   #23
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2001
Location: UK
Posts: 5,815
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Lafcadio
I know that a bunch of arguments seem to indicate that book of Daniel was written in the Maccabean period but I have this argument against it:

How would Daniel know of Belshazzar, the regent while Nabonidus was away, as last king of Babylon, since this knowledge is of recent date, since the discovery of some babylonian chronicles. All the ancients knew that Nabonidus was the last king of Babylon, only Daniel stated otherwise and the recent findings support him!
Why couldn't the author of Daniel have had access to records since lost?
Jack the Bodiless is offline  
Old 03-01-2005, 11:57 AM   #24
Regular Member
 
Join Date: Jul 2004
Location: Romania
Posts: 453
Default

In XIXth century the mentioning of Baltasar (the actual identified Belshazzar) was considered a fiction in Daniel's book and put as a counterargument.
As this guy is not found (or it could be in a lost source, but who can prove it?) in ancient greek literary works, how would someone from hellenistic period know about a co-regent who lived four centuries ago?
Lafcadio is offline  
Old 03-01-2005, 12:11 PM   #25
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2004
Location: Washington, DC (formerly Denmark)
Posts: 3,789
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Lafcadio
In XIXth century the mentioning of Baltasar (the actual identified Belshazzar) was considered a fiction in Daniel's book and put as a counterargument.
As this guy is not found (or it could be in a lost source, but who can prove it?) in ancient greek literary works, how would someone from hellenistic period know about a co-regent who lived four centuries ago?
Most of the literature extant in those days is lost to us. Undoubtedly, our greek libraries are pitiful compared to what would have been available at the time if one was willing to travel to a decent metropolitan center. Especially if you happened to be in Alexandria.

Julian
Julian is offline  
Old 03-01-2005, 12:14 PM   #26
Contributor
 
Join Date: Mar 2002
Location: nowhere
Posts: 15,747
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Lafcadio
I know that a bunch of arguments seem to indicate that book of Daniel was written in the Maccabean period but I have this argument against it:

How would Daniel know of Belshazzar, the regent while Nabonidus was away, as last king of Babylon, since this knowledge is of recent date, since the discovery of some babylonian chronicles. All the ancients knew that Nabonidus was the last king of Babylon, only Daniel stated otherwise and the recent findings support him!
This is merely an argument from silence. You don't know what records were available to the Jews, especially when there were many Jews in Babylon and were there from the time of Nebuchadnezzar, ie before Nabonidus and his regent. Why is it that such an incidental king as Amel-Marduk gets mentioned twice in the Hebrew bible? Are you amazed about that? He reigned for less than two years yet rates a mention. Would you care to present evidence as to when Kings was written based partially on that mention?

Belshazzar, who was never king, was as you say regent of Babylon while Nabonidus worked at finding a southern route to tap into Mediterrannean trade. When Nabonidus returned to Babylon, he resumed his royal prerogative. In fact Nabonidus was in Babylon when it fell, though Belshazzar died several days before in a battle away from the city.

You must be aware of numerous errors in Daniel, if you were to seriously read him as being written in the fifth century. But why should you do that? Why must you attempt to read it as history when the notion of history didn't exist in the fifth century BCE?


spin
spin is offline  
Old 03-01-2005, 12:20 PM   #27
Senior Member
 
Join Date: Apr 2003
Location: Bartlesville, Okla.
Posts: 856
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Diogenes the Cynic
That page is so riddled with fallacies I hardly know where to start.

First of all, almost nothing the page calls a "prophesy" actually is a Messianic prophesy when read in context.
So what is it about the statement in Daniel 9:25 that says " Know therefore and understand that from the going forth of the commandment to restore and to build Jerusalen "UNTO MESSIAH THE PRINCE" shalk be seven weeks and three score and two weeks:" is excluded by a contextual setting? Surely not verse 26 which is a continuation of the prophecy of when the Messiah shall be cut off. Surely not verse 24 which is a prophecy of the same time period for the favored nation status the jews lost right after Jesus was crucified.

Quote:
Secondly, the page claims hits for such absurdities as "he pre-existed creation." Huh? That's not even a Messianic expectation (the OT Messiah is not God) but even if it were, where does the author of this page get the idea that Jesus fulfilled it?
Oh I don't know maybe the "HISTORY OF ISREAL" or the statements of historians like Josephus.
Quote:
I don't really have the inclination to do a line by line debunking but I will point out a typical example of the page's generosity of interpretation. It claims that Herod's slaughter of the innocents was predicted by Jeremiah 31:15. Here is what that "prophecy" actually says:


This is what the LORD says:

"A voice is heard in Ramah,

mourning and great weeping,

Rachel weeping for her children

and refusing to be comforted,

because her children are no more."





It's obviously beyond specious to get from there to Herod killing babies in Bethlehem (to be fair, Matthew did it first and this web page is just parakeeting the gospel). There's also the fact that Herod's slaughter is a Matthean fiction that never happened anyway so here we have a prophecy that wasn't a prophecy and a "fulfillment" that never occurred.
Maybe you should use the context of that prophecy too. Another reason it is taken as such is the gospels say it is a fulfillment of this prophecy in Jeremiah.
Quote:
The whole list is like that. When you actually spend even a few minutes reading the "prophecies" you see what bunk this all is, even leaving aside the fact that much of the gospels were written by raiding the Septuagint for any suggestive passages that could be found and then fabricating a narrative out of these decontextualized bits and pieces.

Oh...and when you look at the genuine Messianic prophecies in the Tanakh, it turns out that Jesus completely dropped the ball on all of them.
I don't see it that way. Seems you critics like to use context when it suits you but not when it doesn't. I've researched much of what that page advances as debunking the critics and I believe they have given a charitable and fair evaluation of the issues.
Jim Larmore is offline  
Old 03-01-2005, 12:29 PM   #28
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2004
Location: Washington, DC (formerly Denmark)
Posts: 3,789
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin
You must be aware of numerous errors in Daniel, if you were to seriously read him as being written in the fifth century. But why should you do that? Why must you attempt to read it as history when the notion of history didn't exist in the fifth century BCE?
Would you not consider Herodotus and Xenophon historians?

I think that Daniel had a political point to make and he wanted to give it weight by pretending it was prophecy. Unfortunately he did not take very good care to get his facts straight. Ah, well...

Julian
Julian is offline  
Old 03-01-2005, 12:41 PM   #29
Contributor
 
Join Date: Mar 2002
Location: nowhere
Posts: 15,747
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Julian
Would you not consider Herodotus and Xenophon historians?
Xenophon was hardly a historian. Herodutus was only starting to learn the ropes. Thucydides was a much better candidate and Polybius had a clear understanding of historiography.

And yes, Daniel was political. The writer was trying to edify those people who were trying to survive the Hellenistic Crisis against the greatest power in the eastern world.


spin
spin is offline  
Old 03-01-2005, 12:57 PM   #30
Contributor
 
Join Date: Mar 2002
Location: nowhere
Posts: 15,747
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jim Larmore
So what is it about the statement in Daniel 9:25 that says " Know therefore and understand that from the going forth of the commandment to restore and to build Jerusalen "UNTO MESSIAH THE PRINCE" shalk be seven weeks and three score and two weeks:" is excluded by a contextual setting? Surely not verse 26 which is a continuation of the prophecy of when the Messiah shall be cut off. Surely not verse 24 which is a prophecy of the same time period for the favored nation status the jews lost right after Jesus was crucified.
You don't mind perverting the book of Daniel, do you? You take a Jewish work written to a Jewish audience with Jewish themes locatable in Jewish history and convince yourself that it refers to Jesus. Jesus was never a nagyd nor literally a messiah in the Jewish sense. It doesn't matter that the Jewish high priest in the 2nd Temple period was both nagyd and anointed. The high priest who was cut off was Onias III and around 3.5 years later the Temple was polluted by Antiochus IV, but you don't care about Jewish history. You want Daniel to bolster your religious commitments.

On Jer 31:15:
Quote:
Originally Posted by Jim Larmore
Maybe you should use the context of that prophecy too. Another reason it is taken as such is the gospels say it is a fulfillment of this prophecy in Jeremiah.
Yes, please look at the context of Jer 31:15, you'll see that it has nothing to do with the new one given to it by the gospels. It's ok to fabricate to justiy the faith, isn't it?


spin
spin is offline  
 

Thread Tools Search this Thread
Search this Thread:

Advanced Search

Forum Jump


All times are GMT -8. The time now is 04:15 PM.

Top

This custom BB emulates vBulletin® Version 3.8.2
Copyright ©2000 - 2015, Jelsoft Enterprises Ltd.