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Old 10-30-2006, 09:59 PM   #1
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Default Pre-Nicaean use of the word ομοουσιος ?

We have Isaac Newton here wondering ...

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Whether the word ομοουσιος ever was in any Creed before the Nicene; or any Creed was produced by any one Bishop at the Council of Nice for authorizing the use of that word.
The answer to his question is still NO?




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Old 10-31-2006, 06:59 AM   #2
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The word homoousios was used in the Synods of Antioch, but it was condemned for being "sabellianist". The objectors to Nicene made use of that, but they still lost out.
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