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Old 12-23-2008, 05:52 AM   #311
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Consider the following Scriptures:

Leviticus 25:44-45

"Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property. You can will them to your children as inherited property and can make them slaves for life, but you must not rule over your fellow Israelites ruthlessly."

Those texts refer to non-Hebrew slaves since they mention slaves from "the nations around you," and "temporary residents......and members of their clans born in your country......."

"You can.......make them slaves for life" means that non-Hebrew slaves were not guaranteed their freedom like Hebrew slaves were, and that the option of freedom was up to Hebrew slaveowners, not to non-Hebrew slaves. That was an unfair double-standard.
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Old 12-23-2008, 09:06 AM   #312
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Andrew wrote:
Quote:
I think you may be misunderstanding what is going on here.
If a man raped a bethrothed free woman he was executed.
If a man seduced a bethrothed free woman he was executed and so was she.
In the case of a bethrothed slave woman who has sexual relations with another man, maybe she agreed maybe she didn't and, given the realities of the power relations, you can't most the time really tell.
The passage in Leviticus 19 is intended to protect bethrothed slave women from being executed for being harrassed into having sexual relations with another man.
Quote:
Quote:
They shall not be put to death, because she was not free.
Instead of the court deciding is this adulterous rape (he dies) or is this consensual adultery (both die) the case is treated as what we would regard as a statutory offence committed by the man upon the woman, with the man receiving a lesser penalty than for standard adultery and the woman not punished at all.
Perhaps, Andrew, realizing that slaves are property makes this clearer. ANY rape situation requires at least one death, maybe more. But you can't "rape" property. Therefore this is not a rape case, it is the case of damaging or inappropriately using property. So the penalty is not death, but a lesser punishment.

I think that with that background, the law makes more sense.

Equinox
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Old 12-23-2008, 09:20 AM   #313
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic View Post
Message to sschlicter: Consider the following Scriptures from the NIV:

Item 1

Exodus 21:2-4

"If you buy a Hebrew servant, he is to serve you for six years. But in the seventh year, he shall go free, without paying anything. If he comes alone, he is to go free alone; but if he has a wife when he comes, she is to go with him. If his master gives him a wife and she bears him sons or daughters, the woman and her children shall belong to her master, and only the man shall go free."

Item 2

Leviticus 25:44-45

"Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property. You can will them to your children as inherited property and can make them slaves for life, but you must not rule over your fellow Israelites ruthlessly."

Item 1 is about Hebrew slaves, and it shows that Hebrew slaves were guaranteed their freedom without paying anything.

Item 2 is about non-Hebrew slaves since it mentions slaves from "the nations around you," and "temporary residents......and members of their clans born in your country......." "You can.......make them slaves for life" means that non-Hebrew slaves were not guaranteed their freedom like Hebrew slaves were, and that the option of freedom was up to Hebrew slaveowners, not to non-Hebrew slaves.

Some texts state that a Hebrew who killed a free Hebrew was put to death, and that a Hebrew who killed a slave was not put to death, only punished. That was wrong.


Okay we have a law that says that foreign residents could not be oppressed. Would not forced slavery constitute oppression? (please answer this). These laws you keep posting is about buying slaves who sell themselves and not forced. So is it 1. These two laws contradict each other or 2. This shows that this was voluntary. (which is it? i want to know). That word that the NIV incorrectly uses (ruthlessly) doesn't even fit within the context which is about the LENGTH OF TIME non hebrew slaves could be kept not saying they could be abused.

And also This argument that a Hebrew could kill slaves is a lie here is what it says: "If a man smite his SERVANT or his Maid, with a rod, and he die; he shall surely be punished (it doesn't say exactly what that punishment is) Notwithstanding, if he continue a day or two, he shall not be punished (thats because it was not intentional)." Note: this law covers all Servants how skeptics reads this as concerning Non Hebrew slaves is beyond me (fault hunting leads to things like this).


"But if a man come presumptuously upon his neighbor, to kill (murder) him with guile; thou shall take him from my altar, that he may die."

That covers all men and not just Hebrews.


So how did you get Exodus 21: 20-21 to cover Non Hebrew slaves only? (I can't wait to hear this).
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Old 12-23-2008, 09:37 AM   #314
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Equinox View Post
Perhaps, Andrew, realizing that slaves are property makes this clearer. ANY rape situation requires at least one death, maybe more. But you can't "rape" property. Therefore this is not a rape case, it is the case of damaging or inappropriately using property. So the penalty is not death, but a lesser punishment.

I think that with that background, the law makes more sense.

Equinox
In the case of a slavewoman I agree that the offence is treated as one against the males concerned.
But in the case of a freewoman the offence is also treated as one against the males concerned. That is why the woman is liable to be killed if she agreed.

I don't think the difference is the nature of the offence. The case is dealt with differently because the woman involved is not regarded as a free responsible agent in this situation.

Andrew Criddle
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Old 12-23-2008, 09:45 AM   #315
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Quote:
Originally Posted by sschlichter View Post

here is the word used. In deut 20:11, it is used in the context of a word that means pay tribute. Ie, they will pay / work for tribute as all serfs do. You see the same word used of a free man in the context of a King. He is a servant, a slave of the King.
Damn! That word is all over the place.

Quote:
Originally Posted by sschlichter View Post
H5647
‛âbad
aw-bad'
A primitive root; to work (in any sense); by implication to serve, till, (causatively) enslave, etc.: - X be, keep in bondage, be bondmen, bond-service, compel, do, dress, ear, execute, + husbandman, keep, labour (-ing man), bring to pass, (cause to, make to) serve (-ing, self), (be, become) servant (-s), do (use) service, till (-er), transgress [from margin], (set a) work, be wrought, worshipper.
That's nice but, the word in Deut 20:11 using your method:


Quote:
Originally Posted by Strong
4522
mac {mas} or \hsm'\n mic {mees}

from H4549 TWOT - 1218; n m


AV - tribute 12, tributary 5, levy 4, discomfited 1, taskmasters 1; 23

1) gang or body of forced labourers, task-workers, labour band or gang,
forced service, task-work, serfdom, tributary, tribute, levy,
taskmasters, discomfited
1a) labour-band, labour-gang, slave gang
1b) gang-overseers
1c) forced service, serfdom, tribute, enforced payment


From H4549 properly a burden (as causing to faint), that is, a tax in the form of forced labor:--discomfited, levy, task [-master], tribute (-tary).
Quote:
Originally Posted by sschlichter View Post
normally, you would use the context to determine which sense of the word is used. of the possible uses of that word, you will likely ignore ALL of them except 'to enslave' like serve, work, keep, bond-service.

Why shouldn't we use what it actually says?

Quote:
Originally Posted by sschlichter View Post
All of these are possible meanings and you need to use the context to figure out which one fits.
So the context of Deut 20:11 says that the people will be forced laborer serfs and not forced laborer slaves... what's the difference?
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Old 12-23-2008, 10:06 AM   #316
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Exciter View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by sschlichter View Post

here is the word used. In deut 20:11, it is used in the context of a word that means pay tribute. Ie, they will pay / work for tribute as all serfs do. You see the same word used of a free man in the context of a King. He is a servant, a slave of the King.
Damn! That word is all over the place.


That's nice but, the word in Deut 20:11 using your method:






Why shouldn't we use what it actually says?

Quote:
Originally Posted by sschlichter View Post
All of these are possible meanings and you need to use the context to figure out which one fits.
So the context of Deut 20:11 says that the people will be forced laborer serfs and not forced laborer slaves... what's the difference?
The difference you ask? Exciter you should know better.

The difference is they were allowed to remain in their own land, having their own kingdom with a measure of self autonomy vs becoming personal slaves or serfs.
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Old 12-23-2008, 10:16 AM   #317
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Originally Posted by sugarhitman View Post
That word that the NIV incorrectly uses (ruthlessly) doesn't even fit within the context which is about the LENGTH OF TIME non hebrew slaves could be kept not saying they could be abused.
That's insteresting. I have never seen rigour/rigor used to mean LENGTH OF TIME, except in use maybe with rigor mortis.
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Old 12-23-2008, 10:36 AM   #318
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Exciter View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by sugarhitman View Post
That word that the NIV incorrectly uses (ruthlessly) doesn't even fit within the context which is about the LENGTH OF TIME non hebrew slaves could be kept not saying they could be abused.
That's insteresting. I have never seen rigour/rigor used to mean LENGTH OF TIME, except in use maybe with rigor mortis.
First time for everything....when shall I have the pleasure of seeing you serious for the first time?
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Old 12-23-2008, 10:37 AM   #319
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Quote:
Originally Posted by sugarhitman View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Johnny Skeptic View Post
Message to sschlicter: Consider the following Scriptures from the NIV:

Item 1

Exodus 21:2-4

"If you buy a Hebrew servant, he is to serve you for six years. But in the seventh year, he shall go free, without paying anything. If he comes alone, he is to go free alone; but if he has a wife when he comes, she is to go with him. If his master gives him a wife and she bears him sons or daughters, the woman and her children shall belong to her master, and only the man shall go free."

Item 2

Leviticus 25:44-45

"Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property. You can will them to your children as inherited property and can make them slaves for life, but you must not rule over your fellow Israelites ruthlessly."

Item 1 is about Hebrew slaves, and it shows that Hebrew slaves were guaranteed their freedom without paying anything.

Item 2 is about non-Hebrew slaves since it mentions slaves from "the nations around you," and "temporary residents......and members of their clans born in your country......." "You can.......make them slaves for life" means that non-Hebrew slaves were not guaranteed their freedom like Hebrew slaves were, and that the option of freedom was up to Hebrew slaveowners, not to non-Hebrew slaves.

Some texts state that a Hebrew who killed a free Hebrew was put to death, and that a Hebrew who killed a slave was not put to death, only punished. That was wrong.


Okay we have a law that says that foreign residents could not be oppressed. Would not forced slavery constitute oppression? (please answer this). These laws you keep posting is about buying slaves who sell themselves and not forced. So is it 1. These two laws contradict each other or 2. This shows that this was voluntary. (which is it? i want to know). That word that the NIV incorrectly uses (ruthlessly) doesn't even fit within the context which is about the LENGTH OF TIME non hebrew slaves could be kept not saying they could be abused.

And also This argument that a Hebrew could kill slaves is a lie here is what it says: "If a man smite his SERVANT or his Maid, with a rod, and he die; he shall surely be punished (it doesn't say exactly what that punishment is) Notwithstanding, if he continue a day or two, he shall not be punished (thats because it was not intentional)." Note: this law covers all Servants how skeptics reads this as concerning Non Hebrew slaves is beyond me (fault hunting leads to things like this).


"But if a man come presumptuously upon his neighbor, to kill (murder) him with guile; thou shall take him from my altar, that he may die."

That covers all men and not just Hebrews.


So how did you get Exodus 21: 20-21 to cover Non Hebrew slaves only? (I can't wait to hear this).


Im still waiting
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Old 12-23-2008, 10:37 AM   #320
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The difference you ask? Exciter you should know better.
LOL, I do. I'm asking the man who posted it, at least he trys to back up his beliefs with a little bit of knowledge and doesn't do like you do, throw out lameass sources, or start with your stupid "unkown" quotes and of course your patenteted street preachin'. Then you whine when people laugh at you or post comical responses, lol.

Since you have an answer for everything under the Son [sic]

Who did the Africans that your Christen brethren used as slaves in the African slave trade descend from?
Japeth?

Shem?

Ham?

Were they part of the cargo?

Answer that... or go slay some tinfoil giants and stuff.....
Quote:
Originally Posted by sugarhitman View Post
The difference is they were allowed to remain in their own land, having their own kingdom with a measure of self autonomy vs becoming personal slaves or serfs.
As involuntary, forced laborers...... well I guess that's better then having to be killed. Allah is merciful.
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