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Old 03-02-2012, 10:17 AM   #111
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well practiced for generations due to the high illiteracy rate's.



so far only those lacking kowledge on the subject at hand are questioning it.
Did you ever respond to me? I questioned it and even refuted the article that you cited. You seem to have just given up. I'll give your Oral tradition a fair shake.


http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Oral_tradition

Oral tradition and oral lore is cultural material and traditions transmitted orally from one generation to another.[1][2] The messages or testimony are verbally transmitted in speech or song and may take the form, for example, of folktales, sayings, ballads, songs, or chants. In this way, it is possible for a society to transmit oral history, oral literature, oral law and other knowledges across generations without a writing system.


http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Oral_law

Although the Hebrew term "Torah" is often translated as "Law", its actual meaning is "Instruction" or "Teaching". Rabbinic Judaism holds that the books of the Tanakh were transmitted in parallel with an oral tradition, as relayed by God to Moses and from him handed on to the scholarly and other religious leaders of each generation. Thus, in Judaism, the "Written Instruction" (Torah she-bi-khtav תורה שבכתב) comprises the Torah and the rest of the Tanakh; the "Oral Instruction" (Torah she-be'al peh תורה שבעל פה) was ultimately recorded in the Talmud (lit. "Learning") and Midrashim (lit. "Interpretations"). The interpretation of the Oral Torah is thus considered as the authoritative reading of the Written Torah. Further, Halakha (lit. "The Path", frequently translated as "Jewish Law") is based on a "Written Instruction" together with an "Oral Instruction". Jewish law and tradition is thus not based on a literal reading of the Tanakh, but on the combined oral and written tradition.


http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Oral_Torah



Rabbis of the Talmudic era conceived of the Oral Law in two distinct ways. First, Rabbinic tradition conceived of the Oral law as an unbroken chain of transmission. The distinctive feature of this view was that Oral Law was "conveyed by word of mouth and memorized."
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Old 03-02-2012, 08:05 PM   #112
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Hi Steven Carr,

Precisely.

The New Testament gospels show no evidence of being eyewitnesses accounts, but every evidence of being fantastic tails cured from the Hebrews Scriptures and undergoing a half to two centuries of changes by a host of authors and editors.
Oh, but they do look like eyewitness accounts. That's not at issue. What's debated is whether they are not eyewitness accounts even though they look like it. The differences don't have to be ascribed to late changes but to contrasting subjective vantage points of different eyewitnesses. Ses my 628-post thread "Gospel Eyewitnesses":
http://www.freeratio.org/showthread....306983&page=26
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To save the phenomena, "oral tradition" gets invented/cited. This oral tradition does not match ordinary historical oral tradition which leads to mythology or usual experiments in oral communication which leads to far more distortion than ordinary written communication. It is a magical "oral tradition" where super brains of the past act like xerox machines and give copies of sayings and speeches in the 100th generation as accurately and perfectly as the original.

When one points out the absurdity of the thing, one is pointed towards the one in 10,000 people who has memorized a long written text accurately. The 9,999 out of a 10,000 who can't remember accurately what they heard or said two days ago are ignored.

Warmly,

Jay Raskin
Your final paragraphs I can agree with, but your overboard first paragraph forces me into this thread.
ETA:
Of course you are sure because of supernatural trappings that the gospels are mere legendary tales. In my thread I adapt my presentation to show that there is an early core that is straight reporting. I call this the "Gospel According to the Atheists". See #526, 534, and 555.
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Old 03-02-2012, 11:27 PM   #113
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Rabbis of the Talmudic era conceived of the Oral Law in two distinct ways. First, Rabbinic tradition conceived of the Oral law as an unbroken chain of transmission. The distinctive feature of this view was that Oral Law was "conveyed by word of mouth and memorized."
You mean all this Oral Law came down from Moses to the time of Jesus unchanged?

Amazing!




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' In this way, it is possible for a society to transmit oral history, oral literature, oral law and other knowledges across generations without a writing system.'

So would Jesus remember what he had said and repeat it accurately when saying it again?

So why are there two versions of the Lord's Prayer? Was Jesus not paying much attention to himself when he preached?
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Old 03-02-2012, 11:29 PM   #114
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Of course you are sure because of supernatural trappings that the gospels are mere legendary tales.
More strawman rubbish from Adam, who is incapable of realising that there is nothing supernatural about being born in Bethlehem, yet even mainstream scholars reject that as a legendary tale.
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Old 03-02-2012, 11:58 PM   #115
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And there's some point to that?
And if there were, "Bethlehem" is not a word in Proto-Luke nor the Passion Narrative.
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Old 03-03-2012, 12:12 AM   #116
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And there's some point to that?
And if there were, "Bethlehem" is not a word in Proto-Luke nor the Passion Narrative.
It was a straightforward injection of reality into your fantasy world where Proto-Lukes exist and people reject things as legendary tales based on nothing other than them containing supernatural elements.

Can't you just go away?
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Old 03-03-2012, 12:34 AM   #117
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I have to admit that your means of refutation is much more polite than Shesh's. Yet your "world" is as legendary as his is, a world in which scholars have labored scrupulously to prove that the sources in the gospels are not eyewitness accounts and have universally triumphed in their endeavour. (Gee, you're even making me spell
British.)
(The above is sarcastic. I am not aware that any scholar has attempted to prove the sources are not eyewitnesses. At "best" they assume that since they can prove that gMatthew was not written by Matthew that nothing in any of the gospels was written by eyewitnesses. I simply show that the "emperor has no clothes".)
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Old 03-03-2012, 12:51 AM   #118
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Adam, "an eyewitness" can be as mistaken in his account as a later writer. Every judge knows that. And I do not speak only of liars who know quite well that they are lying. I speak also of witnesses who believe sincerely that they are saying the truth. Witnesses of miracles, for instance.
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Old 03-03-2012, 06:14 AM   #119
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Hi Adam,

The "Clark Kent" approach to showing an eyewitness or historical basis for the Jesus text does not work. Clark Kent is a reporter working for the Daily Planet newspaper in numerous comic books, television shows and movies. If we eliminate all the "Superman" material, we still do not get a history of a real man or eyewitness accounts of him. One may suppose that there was an original Clark Kent and the "Superman" stories developed afterward, but that would simply be a categorical misunderstanding of the material.

There is only one passage in the gospels that can be reasonably interpreted as claiming that any of the four New Testament gospels reflect eyewitness testimony.

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21.20 Peter turned and saw following them the disciple whom Jesus loved, who had lain close to his breast at the supper and had said, "Lord, who is it that is going to betray you?" 21.21 When Peter saw him, he said to Jesus, "Lord, what about this man?" 21.22 Jesus said to him, "If it is my will that he remain until I come, what is that to you? Follow me!" 21.23 The saying spread abroad among the brethren that this disciple was not to die; yet Jesus did not say to him that he was not to die, but, "If it is my will that he remain until I come, what is that to you?" 21.24 This is the disciple who is bearing witness to these things, and who has written these things; and we know that his testimony is true. 21.25 But there are also many other things which Jesus did; were every one of them to be written, I suppose that the world itself could not contain the books that would be written.
The statement "we know that his testimony is true" indicates that an editor is writing about the putative writer of the text.

My interpretation is that the actual writer wants to claim his text is coming from a disciple of Jesus and wants to attach the beloved disciple's name to the text, but the text is being written many decades or even a century or more after the events described. Saying this outright might suggest that Jesus has made the writer immortal. The actual writer does not want people to think that the beloved disciple is immortal, so he points out that the writer will also be a part of the coming apocalypse and resurrection when Jesus returns.

When people lie, it is typical for them to divert attention from the lie to another subject. Here the writer is trying to divert attention from the lie that this text is written by the the beloved disciple to the issue of whether there will be an apocalypse and resurrection.

The writer still feels uneasy about his lying about the authorship of the text, so he adds, "But there are also many other things which Jesus did; were every one of them to be written, I suppose that the world itself could not contain the books that would be written."

This seems to be a little joke, insinuating that lots of people lie about the things Jesus did. There are so many of them that he does not have time to read all of them. His world or mind cannot contain all of them.

The statement does not demonstrate that the writer is an eyewitness to events, only that the writer knows that he is making up some of the material and his audience thinks so too.

Warmly,

Jay Raskin



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Originally Posted by PhilosopherJay View Post
Hi Steven Carr,

Precisely.

The New Testament gospels show no evidence of being eyewitnesses accounts, but every evidence of being fantastic tails cured from the Hebrews Scriptures and undergoing a half to two centuries of changes by a host of authors and editors.
Oh, but they do look like eyewitness accounts. That's not at issue. What's debated is whether they are not eyewitness accounts even though they look like it. The differences don't have to be ascribed to late changes but to contrasting subjective vantage points of different eyewitnesses. Ses my 628-post thread "Gospel Eyewitnesses":
http://www.freeratio.org/showthread....306983&page=26
Quote:
To save the phenomena, "oral tradition" gets invented/cited. This oral tradition does not match ordinary historical oral tradition which leads to mythology or usual experiments in oral communication which leads to far more distortion than ordinary written communication. It is a magical "oral tradition" where super brains of the past act like xerox machines and give copies of sayings and speeches in the 100th generation as accurately and perfectly as the original.

When one points out the absurdity of the thing, one is pointed towards the one in 10,000 people who has memorized a long written text accurately. The 9,999 out of a 10,000 who can't remember accurately what they heard or said two days ago are ignored.

Warmly,

Jay Raskin
Your final paragraphs I can agree with, but your overboard first paragraph forces me into this thread.
ETA:
Of course you are sure because of supernatural trappings that the gospels are mere legendary tales. In my thread I adapt my presentation to show that there is an early core that is straight reporting. I call this the "Gospel According to the Atheists". See #526, 534, and 555.
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Old 03-03-2012, 09:59 AM   #120
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Jay, you're writing about verses that are later redaction, missing my point about sources.
I'm saying that seven (or more) written sources are from eyewitnesses. They may have written "I" or "we" in the originals that were changed to third person in the editing, or they may have been written in the third person in the beginning.

I am of course aware that eyewitness testimony can be inaccurate. (And I specifically argue that Nicodemus in writing the Johannine Discourses started out to be intentionally inaccurate.) Yet on forums such as this any contradictions are presented as "proof" that the writings are not from eyewitnesses? That's hypocritical or just dumb.

I make no claim that the gospels are inerrant, just that they contain records written by eyewitnesses.
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