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03-03-2004, 02:59 AM | #1 |
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John 1,1 :
hello all .
somebody me A that John 1,1 was a word of philon of Alexandria, if it is true, or can I say find its in the site of Peter kirby? Thank you for your assistance. bye |
03-03-2004, 04:24 AM | #2 |
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hello
somebody could inform me please ?
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03-03-2004, 04:35 AM | #3 |
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I have ran across this from comparison, an excerpt taken from The Christ by John Remsburg, Prometheus Books, 1994.
Philo. -- "The Logos is the Son of God" (De Profugis). John. -- '"This [the Word] is the Son of God" (i, 34). Philo. -- "The Logos is considered the same as God" (De Somniis). John. -- "The Word was God" (i, 1). Philo. -- "He [the Logos] was before all things" (De Leg. Allegor.). John. -- "The same [the Word] was in the beginning with God" (i, 2). Philo. -- "The Logos is the agent by whom the world was made" (De Leg. Allegor.). John. -- "All things were made by him [the Word]" (i, 3). Philo. -- "The Logos is the light of the world" (De Somniis). John. -- "The Word was the true light" (i, 9). Philo. -- "The Logos only can see God" (De Confus. Ling.). John. -- "No man hath seen God.... He [the Word] hath declared him" (i, 18). It seems the originator of the ideal was Heraclitus, a 5th BCE Greek philosopher, to which the Catholic Encyclopedia says this about him.. "It is in Heraclitus that the theory of the Logos appears for the first time, and it is doubtless for this reason that, first among the Greek philosophers, Heraclitus was regarded by St. Justin (Apol. I, 46) as a Christian before Christ." It seems as an apologetic for assimulating the pagan ideal into scripture, they just adopted Heraclitus as a Christian(tm). Here's a good link about Philo: http://www.utm.edu/research/iep/p/philo.htm#Doctrine of the Logos in Philo's Writings |
03-03-2004, 04:52 AM | #4 |
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hello
Thank you very much for your information, therefore it is in the beginning a precept of Heraclitus taken again then by philon ?
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03-03-2004, 11:52 AM | #5 | |
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I'm not clear what you are asking, but from Kirby's site you might look at The Gospel According to John - chapter 7 in Loisy's The Origins of the New Testament (or better yet, consult the original French, as that seems to be your language.)
or The Prologue Quote:
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03-05-2004, 01:38 AM | #6 |
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hello
thank you louse for the bonds, I prefer the sites english-speaking because the French sites do not push the study of the Bible like the anglophone sites.
a question with the passage, which version of the Bible is most precise, the version of king James or the Bible of Jerusalem? |
03-05-2004, 01:54 AM | #7 |
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I did not know that!
The KJV suffers from translation that follows tradition, and it is not based on the best texts. Actual textual issues of Jn I would have to look up. I do not know the New Jerusalem Bible. However, you may wish to go to places like BlueLetterBible where you can compare different translations of the Bible. For the NT, you can also try Perseus-Westcott & Hort Greek NT and "click" on the Greek to check the dictionary versions of the Greek. It may not be the most modern Greek NT, but, frankly, good enough!! --J.D. |
03-05-2004, 02:46 AM | #8 |
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hello
thank you... indeed the version for King James follows the tradition, I compared John 1,1 with a translation of the new world and this translation say: and the word was 1 God !!!
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03-05-2004, 03:09 AM | #9 |
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According to the RSV it is "and the word was god."
In the Nestle-Aland Greek it is kai theos en ho logos or "and god was the word" literally. --J.D. |
03-05-2004, 06:09 AM | #10 | |
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Quote:
a) In the beginning was the word and b) the word was with the god and c) god was the word. As it is clear that the grammatical interest in the sentence is "the word", I would loosely attempt to translate c) as "divine/godly was the word". spin |
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